EMT Exam 2 Multiple Choice
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1. Which of the following steps is not part of the primary assessment of a
responsive patient with a medical problem?
A. Assess the patient's mental status
B. Assess the adequacy of breathing
C. Determine the patient's priority
D. Obtain the patient's blood pressure: D
2. The general impression is an evaluation of all of the following except:
A. the patient's chief complaint
B. appearance
C. the environment
D. past medical history: D
3. You are assessing a patient wand making observations about the scene. Finding
drug-use paraphernalia a t the scene of an emergency is an example of:
A. an indication of the patient's chief complaint
B. the environment part of the general impression
C. an assessment of the scene safety
D. a medical history of drug addiction: B
4. When the patient tells you, in his own words, why he requested that an
ambulance be called, this is referred to as the:
A. general impression
B. chief complain
C. primary assessment
D. secondary assessment: B
5. During the general impression, the EMT should:
A. look
B. listen
C. smell
D. all of the above: D
6. One way to determine the patient's level of responsiveness it to:
A. put ammonia inhalants into each nostril
B. rub the patient's sternum briskly
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C. place the patent's hand in water
D. press on the patent's nail beds: B
7. You are assessing a patient who fell of his bike and landed on hid right
shoulder. First you determine his mental status using AVPU. What does the "A"
in AVPU stand for?
A. Action
B. Airway
C. Assess
D. Alert: D
8. You have determined that your patient is a V as far as mental status is
concerned. What does the "V" in AVPU stand for?
A. Violent
B. Very painful
C. Verbal
D. Venous: C
9. You are concerned because your patient may have a depressed mental
status. What does the "P" in AVPU stand for?
A. Priority
B. Painful
C. Position
D. Patient: B
10. One major difference between the primary assessment of a responsive trauma
patient and the primary assessment of an unresponsive trauma patient is:
A. the assessment is done more quickly on the responsive patient
B. the unresponsive patient is a higher priority for immediate transport
C. there is no difference between the two assessments
D. a jaw-thrust maneuver should always be used on the responsive patient: B
11. You are assessing a patient who was involved in a serious motor vehicle
collision. She is not alert and her breathing rate is slower than 8. As the EMT in
charge, you should:
A. give high-concentration oxygen via nonrebreather mask
B. quickly valuate the patient's circulation and treat for shock
, EMT Exam 2 Multiple Choice
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C. suction the patient and perform rescue breathing
D. provide positive pressure ventilations with 100 percent oxygen: D
12. During your primary assessment of a patient who is alert and has a
breathing rate that is greater than 24, you should provide the patient with:
A. positive pressure ventilations with 100 percent oxygen
B. high-concentration oxygen via nonrebreather mask
C. low-concentration oxygen via bag-valve mask
D. medium-concentration oxygen via nasal cannula: B
13. In the primary assessment, the circulation assessment includes evaluating all of
the following except:
A. pulse
B. skin
C. severity of bleeding
C. blood pressure: D
14. If a patient's skin is warm, dry and a normal color, it indicates:
A. a serious sunburn
B. heat exposure
C. alcohol abuse
D. good circulation: D
15. Your patient has no life-threatening external hemorrhagic but has skin that is
cool, pale and moist. This could be an indication of:
A. increased profusion
B. high blood pressure
C. poor circulation
D. cold exposure: C
16. To evaluate skin color in a dark-skinned patient, the EMT should also:
A. evaluate the tissues of the lips or nail beds
B. evaluate the tissues of the heels of the feet
C. check the pupils of the eyes
D. do all of these: A
17. When assessing the circulation during the primary assessment, the EMT
should check for and control severe bleeding.This is important to do because:
A. open woulds can become infected
, EMT Exam 2 Multiple Choice
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B. it may lead to long-term complications
C. a patient can bleed to death in minutes
D. the blood pressure may drop over time: C
18. When a life threat is observed in the primary assessment, the EMT should:
A. complete the assessment, then treat
B. treat is immediately
C. determine the patient's priority, then treat
D. package the patient for transport: B
19. High-priority conditions include:
A. poor general impression
B. unresponsiveness
C. shock (hypoperfusion)
C. all of these: D
20. All of the following would be considered high-priority conditions except:
A. difficulty breathing
B. responsive but not following commands
C. an uncomplicated childbirth
D. chest pain with systolic pressure less than 100: C
21. During the primary assessment of an adult medical patient with a chief
complaint of chest pain, you note that the breathing rate is 28. You should
consider:
A. oxygen by a nasal cannula
B. providing bag-valve mask ventilations
C. administering oxygen by nonrebreather mask
D. using a paper bag to slow down the rate: C
22. In the adult trauma patient, why is the capillary refill no longer used to ass the
circulation?
A. it is not a good indicator
B. only children have capillary refill
C. it is still a very important step
D. because EMT's have difficulty remembering to use it: A
23. The steps of the primary assessment:
A. are patient dependent
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1. Which of the following steps is not part of the primary assessment of a
responsive patient with a medical problem?
A. Assess the patient's mental status
B. Assess the adequacy of breathing
C. Determine the patient's priority
D. Obtain the patient's blood pressure: D
2. The general impression is an evaluation of all of the following except:
A. the patient's chief complaint
B. appearance
C. the environment
D. past medical history: D
3. You are assessing a patient wand making observations about the scene. Finding
drug-use paraphernalia a t the scene of an emergency is an example of:
A. an indication of the patient's chief complaint
B. the environment part of the general impression
C. an assessment of the scene safety
D. a medical history of drug addiction: B
4. When the patient tells you, in his own words, why he requested that an
ambulance be called, this is referred to as the:
A. general impression
B. chief complain
C. primary assessment
D. secondary assessment: B
5. During the general impression, the EMT should:
A. look
B. listen
C. smell
D. all of the above: D
6. One way to determine the patient's level of responsiveness it to:
A. put ammonia inhalants into each nostril
B. rub the patient's sternum briskly
, EMT Exam 2 Multiple Choice
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_d0vrx3
C. place the patent's hand in water
D. press on the patent's nail beds: B
7. You are assessing a patient who fell of his bike and landed on hid right
shoulder. First you determine his mental status using AVPU. What does the "A"
in AVPU stand for?
A. Action
B. Airway
C. Assess
D. Alert: D
8. You have determined that your patient is a V as far as mental status is
concerned. What does the "V" in AVPU stand for?
A. Violent
B. Very painful
C. Verbal
D. Venous: C
9. You are concerned because your patient may have a depressed mental
status. What does the "P" in AVPU stand for?
A. Priority
B. Painful
C. Position
D. Patient: B
10. One major difference between the primary assessment of a responsive trauma
patient and the primary assessment of an unresponsive trauma patient is:
A. the assessment is done more quickly on the responsive patient
B. the unresponsive patient is a higher priority for immediate transport
C. there is no difference between the two assessments
D. a jaw-thrust maneuver should always be used on the responsive patient: B
11. You are assessing a patient who was involved in a serious motor vehicle
collision. She is not alert and her breathing rate is slower than 8. As the EMT in
charge, you should:
A. give high-concentration oxygen via nonrebreather mask
B. quickly valuate the patient's circulation and treat for shock
, EMT Exam 2 Multiple Choice
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_d0vrx3
C. suction the patient and perform rescue breathing
D. provide positive pressure ventilations with 100 percent oxygen: D
12. During your primary assessment of a patient who is alert and has a
breathing rate that is greater than 24, you should provide the patient with:
A. positive pressure ventilations with 100 percent oxygen
B. high-concentration oxygen via nonrebreather mask
C. low-concentration oxygen via bag-valve mask
D. medium-concentration oxygen via nasal cannula: B
13. In the primary assessment, the circulation assessment includes evaluating all of
the following except:
A. pulse
B. skin
C. severity of bleeding
C. blood pressure: D
14. If a patient's skin is warm, dry and a normal color, it indicates:
A. a serious sunburn
B. heat exposure
C. alcohol abuse
D. good circulation: D
15. Your patient has no life-threatening external hemorrhagic but has skin that is
cool, pale and moist. This could be an indication of:
A. increased profusion
B. high blood pressure
C. poor circulation
D. cold exposure: C
16. To evaluate skin color in a dark-skinned patient, the EMT should also:
A. evaluate the tissues of the lips or nail beds
B. evaluate the tissues of the heels of the feet
C. check the pupils of the eyes
D. do all of these: A
17. When assessing the circulation during the primary assessment, the EMT
should check for and control severe bleeding.This is important to do because:
A. open woulds can become infected
, EMT Exam 2 Multiple Choice
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_d0vrx3
B. it may lead to long-term complications
C. a patient can bleed to death in minutes
D. the blood pressure may drop over time: C
18. When a life threat is observed in the primary assessment, the EMT should:
A. complete the assessment, then treat
B. treat is immediately
C. determine the patient's priority, then treat
D. package the patient for transport: B
19. High-priority conditions include:
A. poor general impression
B. unresponsiveness
C. shock (hypoperfusion)
C. all of these: D
20. All of the following would be considered high-priority conditions except:
A. difficulty breathing
B. responsive but not following commands
C. an uncomplicated childbirth
D. chest pain with systolic pressure less than 100: C
21. During the primary assessment of an adult medical patient with a chief
complaint of chest pain, you note that the breathing rate is 28. You should
consider:
A. oxygen by a nasal cannula
B. providing bag-valve mask ventilations
C. administering oxygen by nonrebreather mask
D. using a paper bag to slow down the rate: C
22. In the adult trauma patient, why is the capillary refill no longer used to ass the
circulation?
A. it is not a good indicator
B. only children have capillary refill
C. it is still a very important step
D. because EMT's have difficulty remembering to use it: A
23. The steps of the primary assessment:
A. are patient dependent
