200 PRACTICE QUESTIONS — NRNP 6675 MIDTERM
(WALDEN PMHNP) | 2025/2026 A+ REVISION PACK WITH
CORRECT ANSWERS!!
What term describes a mismatch between a person's biological sex and their
experienced gender?
Answer: Gender discordance.
Which factors increase the risk of neuroleptic malignant syndrome? (Select all that
apply.)
Answer: Rapid dose escalation; parenteral (non-oral) administration; use of high-
potency typical antipsychotics.
Blocking D2 receptors in the mesocortical pathway by antipsychotics is most likely
to cause which effect?
Answer: An increase in extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS).
Which receptor type do PCP (phencyclidine) and ketamine primarily block to
produce their distinctive behavioral effects?
Answer: NMDA (N-methyl-D-aspartate) receptors.
What is the correct diagnostic label for a cluster of symptoms that recently
appeared after exposure to a substance?
Answer: Substance use disorder.
,Repetitive, involuntary rhythmic movements of the face, mouth, tongue or jaw are
characteristic of which condition?
Answer: Tardive dyskinesia.
What diagnosis fits a single firmly held false belief for at least one month, without
prominent hallucinations, and with functioning impaired mainly by the delusion?
Answer: Delusional disorder.
Why is being preoccupied with the idea of castration potentially dangerous?
Answer: If the individual attempts or undergoes castration without medical
supervision, it can cause serious, even life-threatening harm.
Which system provides a standardized coding scheme for medical and surgical
procedures and diagnostic services?
Answer: CPT (Current Procedural Terminology).
A patient taking chlorpromazine reports weak orgasms and notices milky urine
afterward. How should the APRN interpret this?
Answer: It is likely a benign side effect of chlorpromazine (e.g., related to
hyperprolactinemia).
What genetic condition is caused by the absence of one X chromosome (45,X), and
is associated with short stature, a webbed neck, cubitus valgus, and infertility?
Answer: Turner syndrome.
(Management may include hormonal therapy and fertility options when desired.)
,Which of the following are negative symptoms of schizophrenia?
Answer: Impaired social and occupational functioning; social withdrawal and poor
self-care.
How can clinicians distinguish obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) from
psychosis?
Answer: Many people with OCD retain insight and can recognize that their
thoughts or behaviors are irrational.
Which national programs provide coverage for people aged 65+ (and certain
disabled individuals)?
Answer: Medicare and Medicaid (both are relevant depending on eligibility and
context).
Why is having a clear legal description of a nurse practitioner’s scope of practice
important?
Answer: It helps prevent allegations of practicing medicine without a license,
clarifies accountability for patient outcomes, and supports reimbursement for
services provided by the NP.
Which psychoactive substance is consumed most widely around the world?
Answer: Caffeine.
Which treatment is recommended for tardive dyskinesia?
, Answer: None of the options listed (note: specific FDA-approved treatments
include VMAT2 inhibitors; anticholinergics are generally not effective for TD).
What change did the APRN consensus model introduce?
Answer: It merged adult and gerontology specialties and specified psychiatric-
mental-health preparation across the lifespan.
At an approximate blood alcohol concentration of 0.05%, which effect is
commonly seen?
Answer: Impaired judgment and reduced restraint.
Under HIPAA rules, to whom must a nurse practitioner provide their NPI? (Select
all that apply.)
Answer: Health plans; other healthcare providers; any entity that requires the NPI
for billing purposes.
A patient has had delusions, disorganized thinking and poor self-care for seven
months. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Schizophrenia.
Which neurotransmitter is most strongly implicated in the development of
substance abuse and dependence?
Answer: Dopamine.
What does the dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia propose?
(WALDEN PMHNP) | 2025/2026 A+ REVISION PACK WITH
CORRECT ANSWERS!!
What term describes a mismatch between a person's biological sex and their
experienced gender?
Answer: Gender discordance.
Which factors increase the risk of neuroleptic malignant syndrome? (Select all that
apply.)
Answer: Rapid dose escalation; parenteral (non-oral) administration; use of high-
potency typical antipsychotics.
Blocking D2 receptors in the mesocortical pathway by antipsychotics is most likely
to cause which effect?
Answer: An increase in extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS).
Which receptor type do PCP (phencyclidine) and ketamine primarily block to
produce their distinctive behavioral effects?
Answer: NMDA (N-methyl-D-aspartate) receptors.
What is the correct diagnostic label for a cluster of symptoms that recently
appeared after exposure to a substance?
Answer: Substance use disorder.
,Repetitive, involuntary rhythmic movements of the face, mouth, tongue or jaw are
characteristic of which condition?
Answer: Tardive dyskinesia.
What diagnosis fits a single firmly held false belief for at least one month, without
prominent hallucinations, and with functioning impaired mainly by the delusion?
Answer: Delusional disorder.
Why is being preoccupied with the idea of castration potentially dangerous?
Answer: If the individual attempts or undergoes castration without medical
supervision, it can cause serious, even life-threatening harm.
Which system provides a standardized coding scheme for medical and surgical
procedures and diagnostic services?
Answer: CPT (Current Procedural Terminology).
A patient taking chlorpromazine reports weak orgasms and notices milky urine
afterward. How should the APRN interpret this?
Answer: It is likely a benign side effect of chlorpromazine (e.g., related to
hyperprolactinemia).
What genetic condition is caused by the absence of one X chromosome (45,X), and
is associated with short stature, a webbed neck, cubitus valgus, and infertility?
Answer: Turner syndrome.
(Management may include hormonal therapy and fertility options when desired.)
,Which of the following are negative symptoms of schizophrenia?
Answer: Impaired social and occupational functioning; social withdrawal and poor
self-care.
How can clinicians distinguish obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) from
psychosis?
Answer: Many people with OCD retain insight and can recognize that their
thoughts or behaviors are irrational.
Which national programs provide coverage for people aged 65+ (and certain
disabled individuals)?
Answer: Medicare and Medicaid (both are relevant depending on eligibility and
context).
Why is having a clear legal description of a nurse practitioner’s scope of practice
important?
Answer: It helps prevent allegations of practicing medicine without a license,
clarifies accountability for patient outcomes, and supports reimbursement for
services provided by the NP.
Which psychoactive substance is consumed most widely around the world?
Answer: Caffeine.
Which treatment is recommended for tardive dyskinesia?
, Answer: None of the options listed (note: specific FDA-approved treatments
include VMAT2 inhibitors; anticholinergics are generally not effective for TD).
What change did the APRN consensus model introduce?
Answer: It merged adult and gerontology specialties and specified psychiatric-
mental-health preparation across the lifespan.
At an approximate blood alcohol concentration of 0.05%, which effect is
commonly seen?
Answer: Impaired judgment and reduced restraint.
Under HIPAA rules, to whom must a nurse practitioner provide their NPI? (Select
all that apply.)
Answer: Health plans; other healthcare providers; any entity that requires the NPI
for billing purposes.
A patient has had delusions, disorganized thinking and poor self-care for seven
months. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Schizophrenia.
Which neurotransmitter is most strongly implicated in the development of
substance abuse and dependence?
Answer: Dopamine.
What does the dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia propose?
