,TESTBANK FOR The Sports Event Management and
Marketing Playbook Supovitz
Notes
1- The file is chapter after chapter.
2- We have shown you few pages sample.
3- The file contains all Appendix and Excel sheet
if it exists.
4- We have all what you need, we make update
at every time. There are many new editions
waiting you.
5- If you think you purchased the wrong file You
can contact us at every time, we can replace it
with true one.
Our email:
,Play 1 Test Bank
1. The P-A-P-E-R Test can be used by organizers to maximize their events’ value by considering
the useful framework of:
A. People-Access-Position-Entertainment-Results
B. Promotion-Audience-Partnerships-Environment-Revenue
C. Press-Attention-Publicity-Engagement-Ratings
D. Positive-Action-Planning-Events-Response
E. Prioritize-Act-Prepare-Engage-Respond
2. The best place to begin the sports event management process is:
A. At the beginning, the time when the organizer comes up with the initial idea and concept.
B. On the date when the venue is selected.
C. On a continuing basis as it is an ongoing process
D. At the end, based on the organizer’s vision of what the event will do for the organization.
E. At the 180-day mark prior to the event date.
3. To begin the actual process of planning an event, an organizer’s objectives have to be
supported by:
A. Ticket sales.
B. Stakeholders.
C. Tactics.
D. Sponsorships.
E. Media and advertising.
4. The primary set of considerations of a development checklist to ensure the P-A-P-E-R Test is
being properly employed can be described as:
A. Strategy-to-tactics.
B. Idea-to-implementation.
C. Expenses-to-revenues.
D. Audience-to-activation.
E. Beginning-to-end.
5. Which of the following most accurately describes the proper application of the P-A-P-E-R
Test?
A. Solve basic problems in planning and marketing an event.
B. Identify the primary stakeholders’ needs for an event.
C. Organize secondary objectives for an event.
D. Develop ideas for creating an event.
E. Create a paper trail documenting all details associated with the event.
6. Which of the following should come first in the event planning process?
A. Develop a business plan and budget for the event.
B. Create a strategy for executing the event.
C. Identify a primary objective for the event.
D. Identify a host city and venue for the event.
E. Develop a marketing and ticket selling strategy for the event.
Copyright © 2025 John Wiley & Sons, Inc. Chapter 1-1
,7. Which of the following would be considered an event stakeholder?
A. Title sponsor and broadcast partners.
B. Host community’s elected officials and working media.
C. Athletes and attendees.
D. All of the above.
E. A and B only.
Copyright © 2025 John Wiley & Sons, Inc. Chapter 1-2
,Play 2 Test Bank
1. The two primary categories for typical costs at a sports event facility are:
A. Concessions and merchandise.
B. Production and equipment.
C. Commissions and taxes.
D. Insurance and legal.
E. Rent and labor.
2. The process enabling an event organizer to reallocate budgeted funds originally
overestimated in one area to another budget that may be suffering from cost overages is
known as:
A. Re-allocating.
B. Re-costing.
C. Re-budgeting.
D. Re-forecasting.
E. Re-estimating.
3. For budgeting purposes, the miscellaneous expenses line and the contingency line are
interchangeable and may be used in the same way.
A. True.
B. False.
4. Event operations expenses classified as “overhead” include:
A. The cost of items essential to running an event.
B. Staff specifically hired for the event.
C. Support equipment, systems and supplies.
D. All of the above.
E. B and C only.
5. Which of the following is not an example of an event’s “fixed costs”?
A. Venue staffing expenses.
B. Flat-rate facility rental.
C. Player and equipment costs.
D. Marketing costs.
E. Operational expenses.
6. “Variable costs” are defined as those that increase or decrease as:
A. Expectations vary.
B. Attendance or sales grow or fail to develop.
C. Funds are shifted between budget lines.
D. A variety of event-related purchases are made.
E. Broadcast and production fees are added.
Copyright © 2025 John Wiley & Sons, Inc. Chapter 2-1
,7. Which of the following relating to facility costs is not correct?
A. “Front-of-house staff” includes ushers, ticket takers and security.
B. “Back-of-house staff” includes stagehands, maintenance workers and riggers.
C. “Top-of-house staff” includes sponsorship salespeople, marketing directors and event
managers.
D. The rental rent and other facility costs are covered in a venue’s lease agreement.
E. Ticket sales deductions can include taxes, commissions and usage fees.
Copyright © 2025 John Wiley & Sons, Inc. Chapter 2-2
,Play 3 Test Bank
1. To calculate an event’s gross potential:
A. Multiply the number of tickets within each price break by the price set for each price break.
B. Multiply the total number of tickets by the average ticket price.
C. Divide the total number of tickets by the average ticket price.
D. Multiply the total number of tickets by the highest ticket price.
E. Divide the number of tickets with each price break by the price set for each price break.
2. Accepting VIK is most advantageous to sports organizers when:
A. It can substitute for having to establish barter arrangements.
B. It can augment VIP services that otherwise would have been more expensive.
C. It can offset an anticipated expense that would have otherwise been paid in cash.
D. A product’s value to the organizer is confirmed.
E. A sponsor is involved in the transaction.
3. The merchandise “per cap” is:
A. The amount of money expected in sales, on average, from each attendee.
B. The amount of money expected for the sale of hats.
C. The capped total of money that can be expected.
D. The profit earned in total sales.
E. The total number of goods multiplied by the total amount of money spent by attendees.
4. The guiding principles for securing an event sponsorship include:
A. The event must deliver sales opportunities.
B. The event must provide exposure at the event and through media.
C. The event must create goodwill for the sponsor.
D. All of the above.
E. A and B only.
5. As a general rule for budgeting, the cost of sponsorship fulfillment should be considered an
additional expense to be billed to the sponsor.
A. True
B. False
6. If the first pass at constructing an event budget falls short of expectations, the best thing to
do to “balance the books” is:
A. Abandon plans and cancel the event.
B. Postpone plans until economic conditions are more favorable to hold the event.
C. Consult with stakeholders to explore what grants and donations are available to the event.
D. Adjust the numbers so the bottom line meets the event’s financial goals.
E. Find a new financial consultant.
7. Setting a budget with an event’s revenues and costs must be done precisely the first time
because it is unprofessional and unethical to reforecast financial performance going forward.
A. True
B. False
8. What revenue stream is considered the “lifeblood” of most sports events by event
organizers?
A. Sponsorship and advertising.
B. Merchandise.
Copyright © 2025 John Wiley & Sons, Inc. Chapter 3-1
, C. Ticket sales.
D. Media rights.
E. Food and beverage concessions/catering.
9. “Spoilage” is a term most commonly used by sports event organizers regarding:
A. Wasted marketing opportunities.
B. Unsold tickets.
C. Poor television ratings.
D. Merchandise that will not be successfully resold.
E. Spoiled food that can’t be used at concession stands.
10. In the absence of a proven track record, a good rule of thumb for event organizers is to budget
for a gross potential of:
A. 20%
B. 50%
C. 66.6%
D. 80%
E. 95%
Copyright © 2025 John Wiley & Sons, Inc. Chapter 3-2
,Play 4 Test Bank
1. The acronym “RFP” is short for which of the following?
A. Required for Payment
B. Request for Proposal
C. Revitalization for Property
D. Response from Parties
E. Ready for Presentation
2. The two factors that most frequently determine the degree to which a city will strive to attract
an event are:
A. Economic impact and hotel room occupancy.
B. Stakeholder interests and government support.
C. Media exposure and community goodwill.
D. Facility usage and job creation.
E. Financial feasibility and civic capability.
3. Event facilities are most frequently interested in:
A. Hosting a wide variety of events.
B. Promoting itself within the industry.
C. Meeting the entertainment needs of different audiences.
D. Generating revenue.
E. Maintaining a positive reputation.
4. The ownership and management of event facilities are generally of two types:
A. Profitable and unprofitable.
B. Operated and licensed.
C. Public and private.
D. Sports and entertainment.
E. Large market and secondary market.
5. Because facility license agreements are quite detailed, it can be quite distracting to an event
organizer and highly unusual for a host of new issues to emerge after initial negotiations have
taken place.
A. True
B. False
6. Most event organizers search for venues that:
A. Will be interested, involved, and service-oriented partners.
B. Work to help achieve attendance and profitability goals.
C. Provide in advance billable costs with a reasonable amount of accuracy.
D. All of the above.
E. A and B only.
7. A unit of measurement for hotel occupancy is known as:
A. Room rate.
B. Room week.
C. Room night.
D. Room day.
E. Room service.
8. What is an important factor to event organizers in selecting a facility?
Copyright © 2025 John Wiley & Sons, Inc. Chapter 4-1
, A. A venue’s physical characteristics.
B. Rental and labor rates.
C. Presence or absence of sponsor exclusivities.
D. All of the above.
E. A and B only.
9. Once an organizer and venue have negotiated in good faith and come to an understanding on
business points, it is important to publicly announce the event as soon as possible as long as
both sides and key stakeholders have committed to signing an agreement within a specified
period of time.
A. True
B. False
10. Which of the following is not a common reason why a community wants to host a sports
event?
A. To present a positive quality-of-life program.
B. To attract a professional sports team or athletes to its facilities.
C. To position itself as a leader among other neighboring communities.
D. To showcase local leaders’ passion for the sport.
E. To demonstrate the need for improved sports/public assembly facilities.
Copyright © 2025 John Wiley & Sons, Inc. Chapter 4-2
Marketing Playbook Supovitz
Notes
1- The file is chapter after chapter.
2- We have shown you few pages sample.
3- The file contains all Appendix and Excel sheet
if it exists.
4- We have all what you need, we make update
at every time. There are many new editions
waiting you.
5- If you think you purchased the wrong file You
can contact us at every time, we can replace it
with true one.
Our email:
,Play 1 Test Bank
1. The P-A-P-E-R Test can be used by organizers to maximize their events’ value by considering
the useful framework of:
A. People-Access-Position-Entertainment-Results
B. Promotion-Audience-Partnerships-Environment-Revenue
C. Press-Attention-Publicity-Engagement-Ratings
D. Positive-Action-Planning-Events-Response
E. Prioritize-Act-Prepare-Engage-Respond
2. The best place to begin the sports event management process is:
A. At the beginning, the time when the organizer comes up with the initial idea and concept.
B. On the date when the venue is selected.
C. On a continuing basis as it is an ongoing process
D. At the end, based on the organizer’s vision of what the event will do for the organization.
E. At the 180-day mark prior to the event date.
3. To begin the actual process of planning an event, an organizer’s objectives have to be
supported by:
A. Ticket sales.
B. Stakeholders.
C. Tactics.
D. Sponsorships.
E. Media and advertising.
4. The primary set of considerations of a development checklist to ensure the P-A-P-E-R Test is
being properly employed can be described as:
A. Strategy-to-tactics.
B. Idea-to-implementation.
C. Expenses-to-revenues.
D. Audience-to-activation.
E. Beginning-to-end.
5. Which of the following most accurately describes the proper application of the P-A-P-E-R
Test?
A. Solve basic problems in planning and marketing an event.
B. Identify the primary stakeholders’ needs for an event.
C. Organize secondary objectives for an event.
D. Develop ideas for creating an event.
E. Create a paper trail documenting all details associated with the event.
6. Which of the following should come first in the event planning process?
A. Develop a business plan and budget for the event.
B. Create a strategy for executing the event.
C. Identify a primary objective for the event.
D. Identify a host city and venue for the event.
E. Develop a marketing and ticket selling strategy for the event.
Copyright © 2025 John Wiley & Sons, Inc. Chapter 1-1
,7. Which of the following would be considered an event stakeholder?
A. Title sponsor and broadcast partners.
B. Host community’s elected officials and working media.
C. Athletes and attendees.
D. All of the above.
E. A and B only.
Copyright © 2025 John Wiley & Sons, Inc. Chapter 1-2
,Play 2 Test Bank
1. The two primary categories for typical costs at a sports event facility are:
A. Concessions and merchandise.
B. Production and equipment.
C. Commissions and taxes.
D. Insurance and legal.
E. Rent and labor.
2. The process enabling an event organizer to reallocate budgeted funds originally
overestimated in one area to another budget that may be suffering from cost overages is
known as:
A. Re-allocating.
B. Re-costing.
C. Re-budgeting.
D. Re-forecasting.
E. Re-estimating.
3. For budgeting purposes, the miscellaneous expenses line and the contingency line are
interchangeable and may be used in the same way.
A. True.
B. False.
4. Event operations expenses classified as “overhead” include:
A. The cost of items essential to running an event.
B. Staff specifically hired for the event.
C. Support equipment, systems and supplies.
D. All of the above.
E. B and C only.
5. Which of the following is not an example of an event’s “fixed costs”?
A. Venue staffing expenses.
B. Flat-rate facility rental.
C. Player and equipment costs.
D. Marketing costs.
E. Operational expenses.
6. “Variable costs” are defined as those that increase or decrease as:
A. Expectations vary.
B. Attendance or sales grow or fail to develop.
C. Funds are shifted between budget lines.
D. A variety of event-related purchases are made.
E. Broadcast and production fees are added.
Copyright © 2025 John Wiley & Sons, Inc. Chapter 2-1
,7. Which of the following relating to facility costs is not correct?
A. “Front-of-house staff” includes ushers, ticket takers and security.
B. “Back-of-house staff” includes stagehands, maintenance workers and riggers.
C. “Top-of-house staff” includes sponsorship salespeople, marketing directors and event
managers.
D. The rental rent and other facility costs are covered in a venue’s lease agreement.
E. Ticket sales deductions can include taxes, commissions and usage fees.
Copyright © 2025 John Wiley & Sons, Inc. Chapter 2-2
,Play 3 Test Bank
1. To calculate an event’s gross potential:
A. Multiply the number of tickets within each price break by the price set for each price break.
B. Multiply the total number of tickets by the average ticket price.
C. Divide the total number of tickets by the average ticket price.
D. Multiply the total number of tickets by the highest ticket price.
E. Divide the number of tickets with each price break by the price set for each price break.
2. Accepting VIK is most advantageous to sports organizers when:
A. It can substitute for having to establish barter arrangements.
B. It can augment VIP services that otherwise would have been more expensive.
C. It can offset an anticipated expense that would have otherwise been paid in cash.
D. A product’s value to the organizer is confirmed.
E. A sponsor is involved in the transaction.
3. The merchandise “per cap” is:
A. The amount of money expected in sales, on average, from each attendee.
B. The amount of money expected for the sale of hats.
C. The capped total of money that can be expected.
D. The profit earned in total sales.
E. The total number of goods multiplied by the total amount of money spent by attendees.
4. The guiding principles for securing an event sponsorship include:
A. The event must deliver sales opportunities.
B. The event must provide exposure at the event and through media.
C. The event must create goodwill for the sponsor.
D. All of the above.
E. A and B only.
5. As a general rule for budgeting, the cost of sponsorship fulfillment should be considered an
additional expense to be billed to the sponsor.
A. True
B. False
6. If the first pass at constructing an event budget falls short of expectations, the best thing to
do to “balance the books” is:
A. Abandon plans and cancel the event.
B. Postpone plans until economic conditions are more favorable to hold the event.
C. Consult with stakeholders to explore what grants and donations are available to the event.
D. Adjust the numbers so the bottom line meets the event’s financial goals.
E. Find a new financial consultant.
7. Setting a budget with an event’s revenues and costs must be done precisely the first time
because it is unprofessional and unethical to reforecast financial performance going forward.
A. True
B. False
8. What revenue stream is considered the “lifeblood” of most sports events by event
organizers?
A. Sponsorship and advertising.
B. Merchandise.
Copyright © 2025 John Wiley & Sons, Inc. Chapter 3-1
, C. Ticket sales.
D. Media rights.
E. Food and beverage concessions/catering.
9. “Spoilage” is a term most commonly used by sports event organizers regarding:
A. Wasted marketing opportunities.
B. Unsold tickets.
C. Poor television ratings.
D. Merchandise that will not be successfully resold.
E. Spoiled food that can’t be used at concession stands.
10. In the absence of a proven track record, a good rule of thumb for event organizers is to budget
for a gross potential of:
A. 20%
B. 50%
C. 66.6%
D. 80%
E. 95%
Copyright © 2025 John Wiley & Sons, Inc. Chapter 3-2
,Play 4 Test Bank
1. The acronym “RFP” is short for which of the following?
A. Required for Payment
B. Request for Proposal
C. Revitalization for Property
D. Response from Parties
E. Ready for Presentation
2. The two factors that most frequently determine the degree to which a city will strive to attract
an event are:
A. Economic impact and hotel room occupancy.
B. Stakeholder interests and government support.
C. Media exposure and community goodwill.
D. Facility usage and job creation.
E. Financial feasibility and civic capability.
3. Event facilities are most frequently interested in:
A. Hosting a wide variety of events.
B. Promoting itself within the industry.
C. Meeting the entertainment needs of different audiences.
D. Generating revenue.
E. Maintaining a positive reputation.
4. The ownership and management of event facilities are generally of two types:
A. Profitable and unprofitable.
B. Operated and licensed.
C. Public and private.
D. Sports and entertainment.
E. Large market and secondary market.
5. Because facility license agreements are quite detailed, it can be quite distracting to an event
organizer and highly unusual for a host of new issues to emerge after initial negotiations have
taken place.
A. True
B. False
6. Most event organizers search for venues that:
A. Will be interested, involved, and service-oriented partners.
B. Work to help achieve attendance and profitability goals.
C. Provide in advance billable costs with a reasonable amount of accuracy.
D. All of the above.
E. A and B only.
7. A unit of measurement for hotel occupancy is known as:
A. Room rate.
B. Room week.
C. Room night.
D. Room day.
E. Room service.
8. What is an important factor to event organizers in selecting a facility?
Copyright © 2025 John Wiley & Sons, Inc. Chapter 4-1
, A. A venue’s physical characteristics.
B. Rental and labor rates.
C. Presence or absence of sponsor exclusivities.
D. All of the above.
E. A and B only.
9. Once an organizer and venue have negotiated in good faith and come to an understanding on
business points, it is important to publicly announce the event as soon as possible as long as
both sides and key stakeholders have committed to signing an agreement within a specified
period of time.
A. True
B. False
10. Which of the following is not a common reason why a community wants to host a sports
event?
A. To present a positive quality-of-life program.
B. To attract a professional sports team or athletes to its facilities.
C. To position itself as a leader among other neighboring communities.
D. To showcase local leaders’ passion for the sport.
E. To demonstrate the need for improved sports/public assembly facilities.
Copyright © 2025 John Wiley & Sons, Inc. Chapter 4-2
