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RELIAS - FETAL HEART MONITORING PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS | ALREADY GRADED A+RECENT VERSION

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RELIAS - FETAL HEART MONITORING PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS | ALREADY GRADED A+RECENT VERSION 1) Fetal spiral electrode - ANSWER Calculates fetal heart rate from R to R interval 2) Remove fetal spiral electrode - ANSWER Turn wires counterclockwise until electrode is dislodged 3) Accelerations of FHR - ANSWER Occur due to stimulation of sympathetic nervous system 4) Risk management strategies for documentation - ANSWER Include evaluation of maternal and fetal responses to interventions 5) Auscultating FHR - ANSWER Simultaneously palpate uterus to correlate changes in FHR to uterine activity 6) Best location for auscultating FHR - ANSWER Over the fetal back 7) Uterine resting tone - ANSWER Pressure within the uterus between contractions 8) Most accurate assessment of uterine activity - ANSWER Intrauterine pressure catheter (IUPC) 9) Contraindication to applying fetal spiral electrode - ANSWER Presence of HIV 10) Verifying FHR with external ultrasound transducer - ANSWER Palpate maternal pulse while auscultating fetal heart 11) Cause of early decelerations - ANSWER Head compression 12) Assessing uterine activity - ANSWER Contractions every 4-5 minutes, lasting 40-60 seconds, resting tone of 8-10 mm Hg, peak intensity of 25-30 mm Hg 13) Risk management strategy for fetal heart monitoring - ANSWER Development of emergency drill exercises 14) Late deceleration of FHR - ANSWER Gradual decrease and return to baseline associated with uterine contraction, occurs after peak of contraction 15) Measurement of uterine activity - ANSWER Tocodynamometer 16) Possible cause for cessation of IUPC waveforms - ANSWER Uterine rupture 17) Assessing uterine resting tone and contraction intensity - ANSWER Palpate uterus during and between contractions 18) Maternal position optimizing uterine perfusion - ANSWER Lateral 19) Indication of well-oxygenated fetus - ANSWER FHR accelerations, moderate variability, no late or variable decelerations 20) Process of oxygen transfer from maternal to fetal hemoglobin - ANSWER Passive diffusion 21) Appropriate documentation example - ANSWER MD report: FHR baseline 180 BPM, minimal variability, no accelerations, periodic late decelerations, oxytocin off, patient in lateral position, no change in cervical exam for past 2 hours 22) Normal uterine resting tone in term pregnancy - ANSWER =12 mm Hg 23) Characteristics of Category I FHR tracing - ANSWER Baseline rate between 110-160 BPM 24) Advantage of external ultrasound transducer - ANSWER Assessment of rate changes in response to uterine activity 25) Palpating uterine activity - ANSWER On the fundus of the uterus 26) Contraction intensity is recorded in mmHg with an IUPC to reflect the... - ANSWER Total intrauterine pressure, including the resting tone 27) Variable - ANSWER Deceleration caused by cord compression. 28) Marked - ANSWER 25 bpm variation in FHR 29) Tachycardia - ANSWER FHR 160 bpm 30) Baseline - ANSWER Most commonly occurring fetal heart rate over time 31) Deceleration - ANSWER Three types of decreases in the FHR 32) Position - ANSWER Nursing action to relieve cord compression 33) Fever - ANSWER Possible cause for fetal tachycardia

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RELIAS - FETAL HEART MONITORING
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PSU ASTRO 7N
PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS |
ALREADY GRADED A+<RECENT
VERSION>

1) According to Newton's 2nd law of motion, if the net force acting on the object
increases while the mass of the object remains constant, what happens to the
acceleration? - ANSWER Acceleration increases


2) If Each were moved to half its current distance from the sun how would the force of
gravity by the sun on Earth change? - ANSWER 4x stronger


3) what did Newton's Law of Universal Gravitation tell us about how gravity works? -
ANSWER The force of gravity will be stronger on an object with more mass


4) The Earth radius is about 6400 km. If you were in orbit in the space station 150km
above the ground, the force of gravity you feel from Earth would be - ANSWER
slightly weaker than when you are standing on Earth


5) If you were to sit on the ground, there would be a force due to gravity pulling you
toward the Earth. Which of the following is true according to Newton's 3rd law? -
ANSWER You are pushing the Earth away from yourself with the same force


6) What would happen to the Earth if the sun's gravity somehow "turned off"
instantaneously? - ANSWER It would continue to move in a line in the same
direction it was moving when gravity turned off


7) Consider a planet whose rotation axis is NOT titled with respect to its orbital plane.
What are these seasons like on this planet? - ANSWER There are no seasons

,8) If the Earth rotated on its axis more slowly than it does now: - ANSWER Days
would be longer


9) If Earth had its orbit changed so that all points along its orbit were always the same
distance from the sun(circular orbit), how would this affect the seasons on Earth? -
ANSWER They would be the same as they are now


10) A new planet orbits its star faster than the Earth orbits the sun and it rotates more
slowly than the Earth rotates. Which of the following is true? - ANSWER The new
planet has a shorter year than Earth and a longer day than Earth


11) What time of year is it dark all day (and night) at the South Pole of Earth? -
ANSWER June


12) If Earth's moon was full on May 1, 2007. When was it next in the First quarter phase
after this full moon? - ANSWER May 22nd


13) How much of the total surface area of the moon is illuminated by sunlight during the
full moon phase? - ANSWER 1/2



14) At approximately what time does the 3rd quarter moon rise? - ANSWER midnight


15) Approximately 2 weeks after a solar eclipse, what phase will the moon be in? -
ANSWER Full


16) A moon orbits a planet in exactly the same plane as the planet orbits its star. How
often does this planet experience a solar eclipse? - ANSWER Once every orbit of
its moon(its month)


17) From Earth, in which constellation might you find the planet Saturn? - ANSWER
Taurus

,18) Why don't we see the constellation Orion at night all throughout the year? -
ANSWER As Earth orbits the sun, its nighttime side points to different
constellations at different points along its orbit


19) When is the best time for you to be able to see the constellation that is your sign of the
zodiac? - ANSWER At midnight 6 months after your birthday



20) Constellations close to the North Pole of Earth _____ - ANSWER Move in a circle
around the North Star, Polaris, over the course of a single night


21) There are a total of 88 constellations. Roughly how many of these can be seen at a
given time from a single location on a clear night? - ANSWER 44



22) What is the relationship between wavelength and frequency? - ANSWER If the
frequency increases, wavelength decreases


23) Compare the frequency of x-ray versus regular light - ANSWER The x-ray has a
larger frequency than visible light


24) Compare the frequency and wavelength of a gamma ray with that of visible light: -
ANSWER Gamma ray frequency is higher and its wavelength is lower



25) Compared to blue light, red light has - ANSWER Longer wavelength, smaller
frequency, smaller energy



26) Which types of radiation have the lowest energy? - ANSWER Infrared radiation
and radio


27) The spectrum of an oxygen lamp looks different than the spectrum of a sodium lamp
because: - ANSWER Each atom has a unique set of electron orbits



28) Dark lines in an absorption spectrum represent: - ANSWER Particular energies of
light coming from a distant object that are absorbed by material in between

, 29) True or false: The energy of a photon increases in proportion to the wavelength of the
radiation - ANSWER False


30) True or false: An absorption spectrum appears as a continuous spectrum interrupted
by a series of dark lines - ANSWER True


31) The electrons in a cloud of hydrogen gas are making the transition from excited states
to the ground state. What does the spectrum of this cloud of gas look like? -
ANSWER It will consist of few bright emission lines at specific wavelengths


32) In what ways does a 30 meter telescope outperform a 10 meter telescope? -
ANSWER Its images are 9x brighter than a 10 meter


33) Even the largest ground-based telescopes have resolution restrictions imposed by: -
ANSWER Atmospheric blurring of images


34) When you magnify an object with a telescope, what else happens to your view of the
sky? - ANSWER Your field of view gets smaller, so you can only see a small area
of the sky


35) How long would one need to observe a star on a 10 meter telescope to collect the
same amount of light as one collects in one hour on a 5 meter telescope? -
ANSWER 15 minutes


36) If a telescope in space is only 1/4 the diameter of a telescope on Earth, is this
statement true or false: the larger telescope can observe objects fainter that the space
telescope - ANSWER True



37) What was Kepler's first law? - ANSWER Planets revolve around the sun in
elliptical orbits with the sun at one focus of the ellipse


38) What best describes the orbit of the Earth around the sun? - ANSWER An ellipse
that is close to being circular

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