NP exam practice Exam
NP EXAM PRACTICE EXAM NEWEST 2025/2026 COMPLETE 200
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) |BRAND NEW VERSION!!
Wellman is a 48-year-old roofer who presents because he is concerned about a
painless nodule that developed on the tip of his nose over the past couple of
months. The nodule is about 8 mm in diameter, opaque, ulcerating, with non-
distinct borders. This most likely represents:
Phymatous rosacea.
Squamous cell carcinoma.
Malignant melanoma.
Actinic keratosis. - Correct Answer-Squamous cell carcinoma
Phymatous rosacea will cause the skin to thicken and scar and make the area of
skin bumpy and swollen, but would not present as a single distinct nodule (A).
Malignant melanoma is described as asymmetric, irregular, and with non-
uniform color (often black or brown). Actinic keratosis consists of small, flesh-
colored lesions with a sandpaper-like texture on sun-exposed areas (D).
The next-best course of action for Wellman is:
Initiate topical antimicrobial therapy.
Schedule a chemical peel.
Schedule a biopsy of the lesion.
1|Page
, NP exam practice Exam
Recommend treatment with topical benzoyl peroxide and retinoic acid. - Correct
Answer-Schedule a biopsy of the lesion
Lesions that are suspected to be cancerous should be referred for a biopsy
without delay due to the risk of malignancy. Treatment should not be initiated
until a diagnosis is confirmed. Antimicrobial therapy, benzoyl peroxide, and
retinoic acid are useful for acne or rosacea but would not be effective for
squamous cell carcinoma (A, D). Similarly, a chemical peel is not helpful for
suspected carcinoma (B).
the NP is reviewing the vaccination history of a 22-year-old woman. The records
indicate that she received the first dose of the 4-valent HPV vaccine 6 years ago
but did not complete the regimen. The NP recommends:
Restarting the series with a 3-shot regimen of HPV-9.
Completing the series with one shot of HPV-9.
Completing the series with 2 shots of HPV-9 given over 6 months.
No HPV vaccine indicated as she is beyond the age requirement. - Correct Answer-
Completing the series with 2 shots of HPV-9 given over 6 months
The CDC recommends HPV vaccination for all males and females up to 26 years
of age and so this patient is eligible for vaccination (D). Since the patient
received her first vaccine at age 16 years, she will require 2 additional booster
doses (B). She does not need to restart the series with HPV-9 but can continue
with the latest version of the vaccine (A).
2|Page
, NP exam practice Exam
Which of the following best describes the Tinel sign used during the evaluation of
an individual with suspected carpal tunnel syndrome?
Application of pressure over the carpal tunnel elicits symptoms
Lightly tapping over the nerve elicits a tingling sensation
Hand strength is ≥20% decreased in the affected limb compared to the unaffected
limb
Tingling or burning of the fingers when letting the hand hang freely down with the
forearm pointing up - Correct Answer-Lightly tapping over the nerve elicits a
tingling sensation
The Phalen test involves having the patient place his or her elbow on the table
with the forearm pointing up and the hand hanging down freely for one minute.
A positive result occurs when there is tingling or burning in the thumb, index,
middle, and adjacent half of the ring finger (D). The carpal compression test
involves application of pressure over the carpal tunnel to elicit symptoms of CTS
(A). There is no hand strength test for the diagnosis of CTS (C).
Which of the following is most useful in making the diagnosis of carpal tunnel
syndrome?
MRI of the lower arm
Serum RF and ANA
Electromyography
This is largely a clinical diagnosis based on physical examination - Correct Answer-
Electromyography
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, NP exam practice Exam
Diagnostic approaches are available to confirm a CTS diagnosis (D). Imaging
techniques, such as MRI or high-resolution ultrasound, can be essential in ruling
out other causes of wrist pain but would not confirm a CTS diagnosis (A). Serum
RF and ANA are used in the diagnosis of autoimmune disorders, such as
rheumatoid arthritis, and not for CTS (B).
A 56-year-old woman was diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome 2 weeks ago.
She was instructed to use a volar splint at night and to take acetaminophen for
pain relief. Today she reports little improvement in symptoms. The NP
recommends:
A short course of oral corticosteroids.
A corticosteroid injection near the carpal tunnel.
An opioid-containing transdermal patch.
Surgical correction. - Correct Answer-A corticosteroid injection near the carpal
tunnel.
Systemic corticosteroids and opioid medications are not recommended for the
treatment of CTS (A, C). Surgery can provide symptom relief by releasing the
transverse carpal ligament. However, this should be considered when
conservative therapy is unsuccessful (D).
Doreen is a 52-year-old African American woman with a history of type 2 diabetes
mellitus and hypertension. According to the American Diabetes Association, her
A1C goal is:
4|Page
NP EXAM PRACTICE EXAM NEWEST 2025/2026 COMPLETE 200
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) |BRAND NEW VERSION!!
Wellman is a 48-year-old roofer who presents because he is concerned about a
painless nodule that developed on the tip of his nose over the past couple of
months. The nodule is about 8 mm in diameter, opaque, ulcerating, with non-
distinct borders. This most likely represents:
Phymatous rosacea.
Squamous cell carcinoma.
Malignant melanoma.
Actinic keratosis. - Correct Answer-Squamous cell carcinoma
Phymatous rosacea will cause the skin to thicken and scar and make the area of
skin bumpy and swollen, but would not present as a single distinct nodule (A).
Malignant melanoma is described as asymmetric, irregular, and with non-
uniform color (often black or brown). Actinic keratosis consists of small, flesh-
colored lesions with a sandpaper-like texture on sun-exposed areas (D).
The next-best course of action for Wellman is:
Initiate topical antimicrobial therapy.
Schedule a chemical peel.
Schedule a biopsy of the lesion.
1|Page
, NP exam practice Exam
Recommend treatment with topical benzoyl peroxide and retinoic acid. - Correct
Answer-Schedule a biopsy of the lesion
Lesions that are suspected to be cancerous should be referred for a biopsy
without delay due to the risk of malignancy. Treatment should not be initiated
until a diagnosis is confirmed. Antimicrobial therapy, benzoyl peroxide, and
retinoic acid are useful for acne or rosacea but would not be effective for
squamous cell carcinoma (A, D). Similarly, a chemical peel is not helpful for
suspected carcinoma (B).
the NP is reviewing the vaccination history of a 22-year-old woman. The records
indicate that she received the first dose of the 4-valent HPV vaccine 6 years ago
but did not complete the regimen. The NP recommends:
Restarting the series with a 3-shot regimen of HPV-9.
Completing the series with one shot of HPV-9.
Completing the series with 2 shots of HPV-9 given over 6 months.
No HPV vaccine indicated as she is beyond the age requirement. - Correct Answer-
Completing the series with 2 shots of HPV-9 given over 6 months
The CDC recommends HPV vaccination for all males and females up to 26 years
of age and so this patient is eligible for vaccination (D). Since the patient
received her first vaccine at age 16 years, she will require 2 additional booster
doses (B). She does not need to restart the series with HPV-9 but can continue
with the latest version of the vaccine (A).
2|Page
, NP exam practice Exam
Which of the following best describes the Tinel sign used during the evaluation of
an individual with suspected carpal tunnel syndrome?
Application of pressure over the carpal tunnel elicits symptoms
Lightly tapping over the nerve elicits a tingling sensation
Hand strength is ≥20% decreased in the affected limb compared to the unaffected
limb
Tingling or burning of the fingers when letting the hand hang freely down with the
forearm pointing up - Correct Answer-Lightly tapping over the nerve elicits a
tingling sensation
The Phalen test involves having the patient place his or her elbow on the table
with the forearm pointing up and the hand hanging down freely for one minute.
A positive result occurs when there is tingling or burning in the thumb, index,
middle, and adjacent half of the ring finger (D). The carpal compression test
involves application of pressure over the carpal tunnel to elicit symptoms of CTS
(A). There is no hand strength test for the diagnosis of CTS (C).
Which of the following is most useful in making the diagnosis of carpal tunnel
syndrome?
MRI of the lower arm
Serum RF and ANA
Electromyography
This is largely a clinical diagnosis based on physical examination - Correct Answer-
Electromyography
3|Page
, NP exam practice Exam
Diagnostic approaches are available to confirm a CTS diagnosis (D). Imaging
techniques, such as MRI or high-resolution ultrasound, can be essential in ruling
out other causes of wrist pain but would not confirm a CTS diagnosis (A). Serum
RF and ANA are used in the diagnosis of autoimmune disorders, such as
rheumatoid arthritis, and not for CTS (B).
A 56-year-old woman was diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome 2 weeks ago.
She was instructed to use a volar splint at night and to take acetaminophen for
pain relief. Today she reports little improvement in symptoms. The NP
recommends:
A short course of oral corticosteroids.
A corticosteroid injection near the carpal tunnel.
An opioid-containing transdermal patch.
Surgical correction. - Correct Answer-A corticosteroid injection near the carpal
tunnel.
Systemic corticosteroids and opioid medications are not recommended for the
treatment of CTS (A, C). Surgery can provide symptom relief by releasing the
transverse carpal ligament. However, this should be considered when
conservative therapy is unsuccessful (D).
Doreen is a 52-year-old African American woman with a history of type 2 diabetes
mellitus and hypertension. According to the American Diabetes Association, her
A1C goal is:
4|Page
