NR 341/ NR341 EXAM 1: (NEW 2026/ 2027 UPDATE) COMPLEX
ADULT HEALTH REVIEW | QUESTIONS & ANSWERS| GRADE A|
100% CORRECT (VERIFIED SOLUTIONS)-
1.
A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which assessment
finding should the nurse report immediately?
A. Weight loss of 2 lbs in 1 week
B. Serum potassium of 2.9 mEq/L
C. Mild muscle weakness
D. Increased urine output
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss. A
potassium level <3.5 mEq/L increases risk for cardiac dysrhythmias.
2.
A nurse is caring for a client receiving digoxin. Which finding indicates
toxicity?
A. Heart rate 72 bpm
B. Blurred vision with yellow halos
C. Increased appetite
D. Dry cough
Answer: B
Rationale: Classic signs of digoxin toxicity include bradycardia, nausea,
and visual disturbances (yellow or green halos).
,3.
A client develops shortness of breath and frothy sputum after receiving IV
fluids rapidly. Which medication will likely be ordered?
A. Furosemide
B. Morphine sulfate
C. Epinephrine
D. Nitroglycerin
Answer: A
Rationale: Pulmonary edema due to fluid overload is treated with loop
diuretics to remove excess fluid and improve breathing.
4.
A nurse is reviewing ECG results showing irregular rhythm with absent P
waves. Which condition is suspected?
A. Atrial fibrillation
B. Ventricular tachycardia
C. Sinus bradycardia
D. Atrial flutter
Answer: A
Rationale: Atrial fibrillation presents with an irregular rhythm, absent P
waves, and fibrillatory baseline due to chaotic atrial activity.
5.
A nurse monitors a client with chest pain receiving nitroglycerin. Which
finding requires immediate intervention?
A. BP 88/54 mmHg
B. Headache
C. Flushed skin
D. Mild dizziness
Answer: A
,Rationale: Nitroglycerin causes vasodilation, leading to hypotension. Hold
medication if systolic BP <90 mmHg.
6.
A client with COPD is on 2 L/min oxygen. The nurse notes drowsiness and
decreased respirations. What is the best action?
A. Increase oxygen flow rate
B. Lower the oxygen to 1 L/min
C. Notify the provider immediately
D. Encourage coughing and deep breathing
Answer: B
Rationale: COPD clients depend on low oxygen levels for respiratory drive.
High O₂ can cause hypoventilation and CO₂ retention.
7.
A nurse reviews lab results for a client taking warfarin. Which finding
indicates therapeutic effect?
A. INR 1.0
B. INR 2.5
C. aPTT 90 seconds
D. Platelets 200,000/mm³
Answer: B
Rationale: Therapeutic INR for warfarin therapy is 2.0–3.0. Values below
2.0 indicate under-anticoagulation.
8.
A client post–myocardial infarction develops chest pain unrelieved by
nitroglycerin. The nurse suspects:
A. Pericarditis
B. Pulmonary embolism
, C. Recurrent infarction
D. GERD
Answer: C
Rationale: Persistent chest pain after MI may indicate reinfarction — a
medical emergency requiring ECG and enzyme testing.
9.
A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which adverse effect
should be reported immediately?
A. Dry cough
B. Dizziness
C. Facial swelling
D. Headache
Answer: C
Rationale: Angioedema (facial swelling) is a life-threatening adverse effect
of ACE inhibitors and requires emergency care.
10.
A client on telemetry has ventricular fibrillation. The nurse should:
A. Administer amiodarone IV
B. Perform immediate defibrillation
C. Start chest compressions only
D. Check for carotid pulse
Answer: B
Rationale: Ventricular fibrillation is a lethal rhythm requiring immediate
defibrillation to restore cardiac output.
11.
A nurse provides discharge teaching for a client with a new pacemaker.
Which statement indicates understanding?
ADULT HEALTH REVIEW | QUESTIONS & ANSWERS| GRADE A|
100% CORRECT (VERIFIED SOLUTIONS)-
1.
A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which assessment
finding should the nurse report immediately?
A. Weight loss of 2 lbs in 1 week
B. Serum potassium of 2.9 mEq/L
C. Mild muscle weakness
D. Increased urine output
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss. A
potassium level <3.5 mEq/L increases risk for cardiac dysrhythmias.
2.
A nurse is caring for a client receiving digoxin. Which finding indicates
toxicity?
A. Heart rate 72 bpm
B. Blurred vision with yellow halos
C. Increased appetite
D. Dry cough
Answer: B
Rationale: Classic signs of digoxin toxicity include bradycardia, nausea,
and visual disturbances (yellow or green halos).
,3.
A client develops shortness of breath and frothy sputum after receiving IV
fluids rapidly. Which medication will likely be ordered?
A. Furosemide
B. Morphine sulfate
C. Epinephrine
D. Nitroglycerin
Answer: A
Rationale: Pulmonary edema due to fluid overload is treated with loop
diuretics to remove excess fluid and improve breathing.
4.
A nurse is reviewing ECG results showing irregular rhythm with absent P
waves. Which condition is suspected?
A. Atrial fibrillation
B. Ventricular tachycardia
C. Sinus bradycardia
D. Atrial flutter
Answer: A
Rationale: Atrial fibrillation presents with an irregular rhythm, absent P
waves, and fibrillatory baseline due to chaotic atrial activity.
5.
A nurse monitors a client with chest pain receiving nitroglycerin. Which
finding requires immediate intervention?
A. BP 88/54 mmHg
B. Headache
C. Flushed skin
D. Mild dizziness
Answer: A
,Rationale: Nitroglycerin causes vasodilation, leading to hypotension. Hold
medication if systolic BP <90 mmHg.
6.
A client with COPD is on 2 L/min oxygen. The nurse notes drowsiness and
decreased respirations. What is the best action?
A. Increase oxygen flow rate
B. Lower the oxygen to 1 L/min
C. Notify the provider immediately
D. Encourage coughing and deep breathing
Answer: B
Rationale: COPD clients depend on low oxygen levels for respiratory drive.
High O₂ can cause hypoventilation and CO₂ retention.
7.
A nurse reviews lab results for a client taking warfarin. Which finding
indicates therapeutic effect?
A. INR 1.0
B. INR 2.5
C. aPTT 90 seconds
D. Platelets 200,000/mm³
Answer: B
Rationale: Therapeutic INR for warfarin therapy is 2.0–3.0. Values below
2.0 indicate under-anticoagulation.
8.
A client post–myocardial infarction develops chest pain unrelieved by
nitroglycerin. The nurse suspects:
A. Pericarditis
B. Pulmonary embolism
, C. Recurrent infarction
D. GERD
Answer: C
Rationale: Persistent chest pain after MI may indicate reinfarction — a
medical emergency requiring ECG and enzyme testing.
9.
A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which adverse effect
should be reported immediately?
A. Dry cough
B. Dizziness
C. Facial swelling
D. Headache
Answer: C
Rationale: Angioedema (facial swelling) is a life-threatening adverse effect
of ACE inhibitors and requires emergency care.
10.
A client on telemetry has ventricular fibrillation. The nurse should:
A. Administer amiodarone IV
B. Perform immediate defibrillation
C. Start chest compressions only
D. Check for carotid pulse
Answer: B
Rationale: Ventricular fibrillation is a lethal rhythm requiring immediate
defibrillation to restore cardiac output.
11.
A nurse provides discharge teaching for a client with a new pacemaker.
Which statement indicates understanding?
