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Which of the following accurately describes the
pathophysiology of Type 1 diabetes mellitus
A- insulin resistance and an increase of glucose
production of the liver
B- Results from autoimmune destruction of the pancreatic
beta cells
C- primarily caused by excess weight and a sedentary
lifestyle
D- symptoms typically present after 40 - ANSWER-B- type
1 is autoimmune - it is the beta cells job to secrete insulin
,A patient with type 2 Diabetes mellitus is experiencing
hyperglycemia. Which of the following patho mechanisms
are primarily responsible for this condition?
A- lack of insulin production
B- insulin resistance in peripheral tissues
C- increased glucose reabsorption in the kidneys
D- excessive secretion of glucagon from the pancreas -
ANSWER-B - insulin production may be decreased but is
still present. The cells are resistant
which is true about glucose in the body
,A- it decreases blood glucose levels by promoting
glycolysis
B- It is secreted in response to the increased glucose
levels
C- it enhances the insulin sensitivity in peripheral tissues
D- it increases blood glucose by stimulating
gluconeogenesis - ANSWER-D- glucagon is secreted by
alpha cells which promote gluconeogenesis and
glycogenolysis in the liver
A nurse is teaching about the complications of
uncontrolled diabetes mellitus. Which complication is
primarily caused by uncontrolled long term
hyperglycemia?
, A- Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)
B- Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state
C- peripheral neuropathy
D- Hypoglycemia - ANSWER-C- due to the nerve damage
from the thick blood
A patient with newly diagnosed T2DM asks the nurse
about the role of the liver managing glucose. What is the
nurses best response?
A- The liver produces insulin which decreases blood
glucose