PNCB Exam 2025 COMPLETE 230 EXAM QUESTIONS AND
VERIFIED ANSWERS |RECENTLY TESTING REAL EXAM
QUESTIONS| 100% SOLVED
1. What is the developmental stage and age range defined as experiencing the
world through senses and actions?: Piaget's Sensorimotor, Birth to 2 years
2. What is the developmental stage and age range defined as representing
things with words and images?: Piaget's Preoperational, 2 to 6 years old
3. What is the developmental stage and age range defined as thinking
logically about concrete events and grasping concrete analogies?: Piaget's
Concrete Operational, 7 to 11 years old
4. What is the developmental stage and age range defined as thinking about
hypothetical scenarios and processing abstract thoughts?: Piaget's Formal
Operational, 12 to adulthood
5. What age range is Piaget's Formal Operational?: 12 to adulthood
6. What age range is Piaget's Concrete Operational?: 7 to 11 years old
,7. What age range is Piaget's Preoperational?: 2 to 6 years old
8. What age range is Piaget's Sensorimotor?: Birth to 2 years old
9. Describe independent play: Common in ages 2-3
They are uninterested in or is unaware of what others are doing.
They are playing alone and maintains focus on its activity.
10. What stage of play is defined by playing alone and uninterested in or
unaware of what others are doing?: Independent play
11. Describe Parallel Play: Children play adjacent to each other, but don't
influence each other's play.
They are interested in what other children are playing, but plays alone.
Ages 2-3, but can start after 1st birthday
12. What stage of play is defined as interested in another's activity but
playing along side them without influencing or interacting with them?:
Parallel play
13. What differentiates Parallel play vs Associative play?: Interaction. There is
interaction with associative play, not with Parallel play. In Associative, there is
interest but no coordinated activity.
14. What type of head trauma is typically associated with vacuum
deliveries?: Subgaleal hemorrhage - ruptured emissary vein caused by
fragmentation of the parietal bone associated with skull fracture. Can extend to the
neck and orbits. May have crepitus, fluid waves and ill-defined borders
15. A quad screen expected result for a child with down syndrome would
read?: Low levels of AFP
,16. What AFP level would you expect in a child with esophageal atresia?:
High
17. An 8 month old infant presents with significant head lag, what are you
suspicious of?: Cerebral Palsy
18. When is an infant expected to double it's birth weight by?: 5 months?
19 When is an infant expected to triple it's birth weight by?: 1 year
20. Pregnant Greeks and pregnant woman living in higher elevations should
have their newborns followed for?: higher risk of hyperbilirubinemia
21. An indirect bili measures conjugated or unconjugated bili?: unconjugated
22. An infant presents with elevated total bili, what should you suspect?:
biliary atresia
23. An infant assessment finds a cephalohematoma on exam, what should
you monitor the child for?: hyperbilirubinemia
24. Which patient population has highest risk for hyperbilirubinemia? Asians,
African Americans, Greeks?: Asians and American indians have highest risk.
African americans with G6PD deficiency are at greater risk, as is Greeks and
people who live in higher elevations.
25. A pregnant mother positive HIV presents to the hospital in labor, intact
membranes at 38 weeks with an unknown viral load. She has had 3 ARV.
What is the treatment plan?: Patient with a viral load or unknown viral load,
despite receiving 3 ARV, should have a c-section.
26. What recurrent infection is commonly associated with HIV?: oral thrush
, 27. What is the treatment for Chlamydia Trachomatis conjuntivitis?: Oral
Azithromycin is preferred (20mg/kg/day in 1 dose) for 3 days or 40mg/kg/day in
4 divided doses for 14 days of erythromycin - eye drops do NOT work
28. What is the most prevalent sexually transmitted disease in the US?:
Chylamdia Trachomatis
29. What is the treatment for Gonorrheoeae Conjuntivitis?: IV antibiotics -
ceftriaxone 25-50mg/kg IV or IM in a single dose. Infant must be evaluated for
disseminated disease
30. What is the gold standard for testing of Chlamydia Trachomatis?: Culture
31. What medication(s) are associated with increased risk for pyloric
stenosis?: Erythromycin and Azithromycin
32. A 3-day old neonate presents with conjunctivitis, what are you suspicious
of?: Gonococcal opthalmia
33. If an infant presents with Gonorrheoeae Conjunctivitis and also has
hyperbilirubinemia, what antibiotic should be employed?: Cefotaxime
34. What contraception method increases your risk for ectopic pregnancy?: -
An IUD and progestin only contraceptive
35. Which method is most efficient in detecting HCG levels for diagnosis of
pregnancy?: Serum is detectable in 48 hours post conception
36. What is Goodell's sign?: Indication of pregnancy where there is significant
VERIFIED ANSWERS |RECENTLY TESTING REAL EXAM
QUESTIONS| 100% SOLVED
1. What is the developmental stage and age range defined as experiencing the
world through senses and actions?: Piaget's Sensorimotor, Birth to 2 years
2. What is the developmental stage and age range defined as representing
things with words and images?: Piaget's Preoperational, 2 to 6 years old
3. What is the developmental stage and age range defined as thinking
logically about concrete events and grasping concrete analogies?: Piaget's
Concrete Operational, 7 to 11 years old
4. What is the developmental stage and age range defined as thinking about
hypothetical scenarios and processing abstract thoughts?: Piaget's Formal
Operational, 12 to adulthood
5. What age range is Piaget's Formal Operational?: 12 to adulthood
6. What age range is Piaget's Concrete Operational?: 7 to 11 years old
,7. What age range is Piaget's Preoperational?: 2 to 6 years old
8. What age range is Piaget's Sensorimotor?: Birth to 2 years old
9. Describe independent play: Common in ages 2-3
They are uninterested in or is unaware of what others are doing.
They are playing alone and maintains focus on its activity.
10. What stage of play is defined by playing alone and uninterested in or
unaware of what others are doing?: Independent play
11. Describe Parallel Play: Children play adjacent to each other, but don't
influence each other's play.
They are interested in what other children are playing, but plays alone.
Ages 2-3, but can start after 1st birthday
12. What stage of play is defined as interested in another's activity but
playing along side them without influencing or interacting with them?:
Parallel play
13. What differentiates Parallel play vs Associative play?: Interaction. There is
interaction with associative play, not with Parallel play. In Associative, there is
interest but no coordinated activity.
14. What type of head trauma is typically associated with vacuum
deliveries?: Subgaleal hemorrhage - ruptured emissary vein caused by
fragmentation of the parietal bone associated with skull fracture. Can extend to the
neck and orbits. May have crepitus, fluid waves and ill-defined borders
15. A quad screen expected result for a child with down syndrome would
read?: Low levels of AFP
,16. What AFP level would you expect in a child with esophageal atresia?:
High
17. An 8 month old infant presents with significant head lag, what are you
suspicious of?: Cerebral Palsy
18. When is an infant expected to double it's birth weight by?: 5 months?
19 When is an infant expected to triple it's birth weight by?: 1 year
20. Pregnant Greeks and pregnant woman living in higher elevations should
have their newborns followed for?: higher risk of hyperbilirubinemia
21. An indirect bili measures conjugated or unconjugated bili?: unconjugated
22. An infant presents with elevated total bili, what should you suspect?:
biliary atresia
23. An infant assessment finds a cephalohematoma on exam, what should
you monitor the child for?: hyperbilirubinemia
24. Which patient population has highest risk for hyperbilirubinemia? Asians,
African Americans, Greeks?: Asians and American indians have highest risk.
African americans with G6PD deficiency are at greater risk, as is Greeks and
people who live in higher elevations.
25. A pregnant mother positive HIV presents to the hospital in labor, intact
membranes at 38 weeks with an unknown viral load. She has had 3 ARV.
What is the treatment plan?: Patient with a viral load or unknown viral load,
despite receiving 3 ARV, should have a c-section.
26. What recurrent infection is commonly associated with HIV?: oral thrush
, 27. What is the treatment for Chlamydia Trachomatis conjuntivitis?: Oral
Azithromycin is preferred (20mg/kg/day in 1 dose) for 3 days or 40mg/kg/day in
4 divided doses for 14 days of erythromycin - eye drops do NOT work
28. What is the most prevalent sexually transmitted disease in the US?:
Chylamdia Trachomatis
29. What is the treatment for Gonorrheoeae Conjuntivitis?: IV antibiotics -
ceftriaxone 25-50mg/kg IV or IM in a single dose. Infant must be evaluated for
disseminated disease
30. What is the gold standard for testing of Chlamydia Trachomatis?: Culture
31. What medication(s) are associated with increased risk for pyloric
stenosis?: Erythromycin and Azithromycin
32. A 3-day old neonate presents with conjunctivitis, what are you suspicious
of?: Gonococcal opthalmia
33. If an infant presents with Gonorrheoeae Conjunctivitis and also has
hyperbilirubinemia, what antibiotic should be employed?: Cefotaxime
34. What contraception method increases your risk for ectopic pregnancy?: -
An IUD and progestin only contraceptive
35. Which method is most efficient in detecting HCG levels for diagnosis of
pregnancy?: Serum is detectable in 48 hours post conception
36. What is Goodell's sign?: Indication of pregnancy where there is significant
