Advanced Life Support (ALS) Online Session Final Exam
Questions & Answers Solved 100% Correct!!
Question 1
A patient's ECG reveals a narrow QRS complex with a regular rhythm,
indicating a narrow-complex supraventricular tachyarrhythmia. The patient is
hemodynamically stable. Which intervention would be initiated first?
A) Administer adenosine 6 mg IV push.
B) Prepare for synchronized cardioversion.
C) Attempt vagal maneuvers.
D) Initiate transcutaneous pacing.
E) Administer diltiazem 0.25 mg/kg IV.
Correct Answer: C) Attempt vagal maneuvers
Rationale: For a patient who is hemodynamically stable and
experiencing a narrow-complex supraventricular tachyarrhythmia,
vagal maneuvers are the first intervention to attempt. If ineffective,
adenosine is then considered.
Question 2
A patient's capnogram reveals a waveform. Which segment would the
healthcare provider interpret as reflecting the beginning of exhalation?
A) Point A-B
B) Point B-C
C) Point C-D
D) Point D-E
E) Point E-F
Correct Answer: A) Point A-B
Rationale: The A–B segment on a capnogram represents the
respiratory baseline and indicates the beginning of exhalation.
Question 3
A patient experiencing an unstable bradyarrhythmia does not respond to
atropine or transcutaneous pacing. Which intervention would the healthcare
provider use next?
,A) Administration of amiodarone.
B) Immediate synchronized cardioversion.
C) Administration of an epinephrine infusion.
D) Insertion of a permanent pacemaker.
E) Administration of adenosine.
Correct Answer: C) Administration of an epinephrine infusion.
Rationale: If atropine and transcutaneous pacing are ineffective for
symptomatic bradycardia, epinephrine or dopamine infusions are
the next recommended pharmacologic interventions.
Question 4
A patient with a suspected stroke arrives at the emergency department at
7:10 p.m. The stroke team ensures that a neurologic assessment and brain
computed tomography or magnetic resonance imaging is obtained by which
time?
A) 7:15 p.m.
B) 7:20 p.m.
C) 7:30 p.m.
D) 7:40 p.m.
E) 7:50 p.m.
Correct Answer: C) 7:30 p.m.
Rationale: According to National Institute of Neurological Disorders
and Stroke (NINDS) guidelines, a neurologic assessment and brain
CT or MRI must be obtained within 20 minutes of a patient's arrival
for suspected stroke. For a 7:10 p.m. arrival, this means by 7:30
p.m.
Question 5
A patient in the telemetry unit is stable. Cardiac monitoring indicates the
patient has ventricular tachycardia with a pulse. Further assessment reveals
that the corrected QT interval is greater than 0.46 seconds. Which treatment
would be appropriate at this time?
,A) Administer amiodarone.
B) Administer procainamide.
C) Initiate transcutaneous pacing.
D) Synchronized cardioversion.
E) Administer lidocaine.
Correct Answer: D) Synchronized cardioversion
Rationale: For a stable patient with ventricular tachycardia, a pulse,
and a corrected QT (QTc) interval greater than 0.46 seconds,
synchronized cardioversion is the recommended treatment.
Question 6
A resuscitation team is debriefing following a recent event where a patient
experienced cardiac arrest and required an advanced airway. Which
statement indicates that the team performed high-quality CPR with an
advanced airway?
A) "We paused compressions for 20 seconds during each ventilation cycle."
B) "We delivered 1 ventilation every 6 seconds and chest compressions at a
rate of 100 to 120 compressions per minute continuously."
C) "We synchronized ventilations with compressions at a 30:2 ratio."
D) "We delivered 1 ventilation every 2 seconds without chest compressions."
E) "We maintained compressions at 80 compressions per minute."
Correct Answer: B) "We delivered 1 ventilation every 6 seconds and
chest compressions at a rate of 100 to 120 compressions per minute
continuously."
Rationale: When an advanced airway is in place during cardiac arrest,
ventilations are delivered continuously at a rate of 1 breath every 6
seconds, while chest compressions are performed continuously at a
rate of 100 to 120 compressions per minute without interruption.
Question 7
A healthcare provider initiates ventilations and establishes capnography to
evaluate their adequacy. The healthcare provider determines that
, ventilations are adequate based on which end-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2)
value?
A) 10 to 20 mmHg
B) 20 to 30 mmHg
C) 35 to 45 mmHg
D) 50 to 60 mmHg
E) Above 60 mmHg
Correct Answer: C) 35 to 45 mmHg
Rationale: End-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2) values in the range of 35
to 45 mmHg confirm the adequacy of ventilations.
Question 8
An ECG strip of a patient in the emergency department reveals a rhythm.
Which feature would the healthcare provider interpret as indicating atrial
fibrillation?
A) Presence of discrete P waves before every QRS complex.
B) A regular R-R interval.
C) Absence of discrete P waves and presence of irregularly irregular QRS
complexes.
D) Tall, peaked T waves.
E) Wide, bizarre QRS complexes with a regular rhythm.
Correct Answer: C) Absence of discrete P waves and presence of
irregularly irregular QRS complexes.
Rationale: The two key features of atrial fibrillation on an ECG are the
absence of discrete P waves and the presence of irregularly
irregular QRS complexes.
Question 9
A patient in cardiac arrest experiences return of spontaneous circulation
(ROSC). As part of post-cardiac arrest care, the patient is receiving
mechanical ventilation. Which finding(s) would indicate the need for change
in the ventilator settings to optimize the patient's ventilation and
Questions & Answers Solved 100% Correct!!
Question 1
A patient's ECG reveals a narrow QRS complex with a regular rhythm,
indicating a narrow-complex supraventricular tachyarrhythmia. The patient is
hemodynamically stable. Which intervention would be initiated first?
A) Administer adenosine 6 mg IV push.
B) Prepare for synchronized cardioversion.
C) Attempt vagal maneuvers.
D) Initiate transcutaneous pacing.
E) Administer diltiazem 0.25 mg/kg IV.
Correct Answer: C) Attempt vagal maneuvers
Rationale: For a patient who is hemodynamically stable and
experiencing a narrow-complex supraventricular tachyarrhythmia,
vagal maneuvers are the first intervention to attempt. If ineffective,
adenosine is then considered.
Question 2
A patient's capnogram reveals a waveform. Which segment would the
healthcare provider interpret as reflecting the beginning of exhalation?
A) Point A-B
B) Point B-C
C) Point C-D
D) Point D-E
E) Point E-F
Correct Answer: A) Point A-B
Rationale: The A–B segment on a capnogram represents the
respiratory baseline and indicates the beginning of exhalation.
Question 3
A patient experiencing an unstable bradyarrhythmia does not respond to
atropine or transcutaneous pacing. Which intervention would the healthcare
provider use next?
,A) Administration of amiodarone.
B) Immediate synchronized cardioversion.
C) Administration of an epinephrine infusion.
D) Insertion of a permanent pacemaker.
E) Administration of adenosine.
Correct Answer: C) Administration of an epinephrine infusion.
Rationale: If atropine and transcutaneous pacing are ineffective for
symptomatic bradycardia, epinephrine or dopamine infusions are
the next recommended pharmacologic interventions.
Question 4
A patient with a suspected stroke arrives at the emergency department at
7:10 p.m. The stroke team ensures that a neurologic assessment and brain
computed tomography or magnetic resonance imaging is obtained by which
time?
A) 7:15 p.m.
B) 7:20 p.m.
C) 7:30 p.m.
D) 7:40 p.m.
E) 7:50 p.m.
Correct Answer: C) 7:30 p.m.
Rationale: According to National Institute of Neurological Disorders
and Stroke (NINDS) guidelines, a neurologic assessment and brain
CT or MRI must be obtained within 20 minutes of a patient's arrival
for suspected stroke. For a 7:10 p.m. arrival, this means by 7:30
p.m.
Question 5
A patient in the telemetry unit is stable. Cardiac monitoring indicates the
patient has ventricular tachycardia with a pulse. Further assessment reveals
that the corrected QT interval is greater than 0.46 seconds. Which treatment
would be appropriate at this time?
,A) Administer amiodarone.
B) Administer procainamide.
C) Initiate transcutaneous pacing.
D) Synchronized cardioversion.
E) Administer lidocaine.
Correct Answer: D) Synchronized cardioversion
Rationale: For a stable patient with ventricular tachycardia, a pulse,
and a corrected QT (QTc) interval greater than 0.46 seconds,
synchronized cardioversion is the recommended treatment.
Question 6
A resuscitation team is debriefing following a recent event where a patient
experienced cardiac arrest and required an advanced airway. Which
statement indicates that the team performed high-quality CPR with an
advanced airway?
A) "We paused compressions for 20 seconds during each ventilation cycle."
B) "We delivered 1 ventilation every 6 seconds and chest compressions at a
rate of 100 to 120 compressions per minute continuously."
C) "We synchronized ventilations with compressions at a 30:2 ratio."
D) "We delivered 1 ventilation every 2 seconds without chest compressions."
E) "We maintained compressions at 80 compressions per minute."
Correct Answer: B) "We delivered 1 ventilation every 6 seconds and
chest compressions at a rate of 100 to 120 compressions per minute
continuously."
Rationale: When an advanced airway is in place during cardiac arrest,
ventilations are delivered continuously at a rate of 1 breath every 6
seconds, while chest compressions are performed continuously at a
rate of 100 to 120 compressions per minute without interruption.
Question 7
A healthcare provider initiates ventilations and establishes capnography to
evaluate their adequacy. The healthcare provider determines that
, ventilations are adequate based on which end-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2)
value?
A) 10 to 20 mmHg
B) 20 to 30 mmHg
C) 35 to 45 mmHg
D) 50 to 60 mmHg
E) Above 60 mmHg
Correct Answer: C) 35 to 45 mmHg
Rationale: End-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2) values in the range of 35
to 45 mmHg confirm the adequacy of ventilations.
Question 8
An ECG strip of a patient in the emergency department reveals a rhythm.
Which feature would the healthcare provider interpret as indicating atrial
fibrillation?
A) Presence of discrete P waves before every QRS complex.
B) A regular R-R interval.
C) Absence of discrete P waves and presence of irregularly irregular QRS
complexes.
D) Tall, peaked T waves.
E) Wide, bizarre QRS complexes with a regular rhythm.
Correct Answer: C) Absence of discrete P waves and presence of
irregularly irregular QRS complexes.
Rationale: The two key features of atrial fibrillation on an ECG are the
absence of discrete P waves and the presence of irregularly
irregular QRS complexes.
Question 9
A patient in cardiac arrest experiences return of spontaneous circulation
(ROSC). As part of post-cardiac arrest care, the patient is receiving
mechanical ventilation. Which finding(s) would indicate the need for change
in the ventilator settings to optimize the patient's ventilation and
