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Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Lilley 10th Ed Test Bank - Chapters 21-25 | Anticholinergics, Antihypertensives, Antianginals, Heart Failure, Antidysrhythmics

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Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Lilley 10th Ed Test Bank - Chapters 21-25 | Anticholinergics, Antihypertensives, Antianginals, Heart Failure, Antidysrhythmics Meta Description: Master cardiovascular and autonomic pharmacology! This test bank for Pharmacology and the Nursing Process, 10th Edition (Lilley) covers Chapters 21-25. Includes practice questions on anticholinergics, antihypertensives, antianginals, heart failure drugs, and antidysrhythmics. Instant digital download! ________________________________________ Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Lilley 10th Ed Test Bank - Chapters 21-25 | Anticholinergics, Antihypertensives, Antianginals, Heart Failure, Antidysrhythmics Master the drugs that control the heart and circulation! This test bank for Pharmacology and the Nursing Process, 10th Edition by Linda Lane Lilley et al. covers Chapters 21 through 25. It provides critical practice questions with detailed rationales on cholinergic-blocking drugs, antihypertensive agents, antianginal medications, heart failure management, and antidysrhythmic therapy. An essential resource for anyone preparing for cardiac and med-surg nursing. Instant digital download! ________________________________________ • Primary Keywords: Pharmacology and the Nursing Process test bank, Lilley pharmacology 10th edition, pharmacology nursing test bank, nursing test bank • Secondary Keywords: Anticholinergic drugs, atropine, scopolamine, antihypertensive drugs, ACE inhibitors, beta blockers, antianginal drugs, nitroglycerin, heart failure drugs, digoxin, milrinone, antidysrhythmic drugs, amiodarone, ACLS protocols ________________________________________ Test Bank for Pharmacology and the Nursing Process, 10th Edition (Lilley) - Chapters 21-25 Conquer the complexities of cardiovascular and autonomic pharmacology with this essential test bank. This digital resource provides targeted practice for Chapters 21-25, covering everything from managing hypertension and angina to treating life-threatening heart failure and cardiac arrhythmias. Understanding these drug classes is non-negotiable for success in medical-surgical nursing, critical care, and the NCLEX. Ideal for nursing students, NCLEX-RN® candidates, and instructors seeking reliable, textbook-aligned practice questions on these high-stakes, high-volume medications. ________________________________________ Chapter-by-Chapter Coverage Chapter 21: Cholinergic-Blocking Drugs • Mechanism of Action: Block acetylcholine in the parasympathetic nervous system. • Key Drugs & Uses: o Atropine: Symptomatic bradycardia, preoperative use, antidote for cholinergic overdose. o Scopolamine: Motion sickness (transdermal patch). o Oxybutynin/Tolterodine: Overactive bladder (urge incontinence). • Adverse Effects: Dry mouth, tachycardia, blurred vision, urinary retention, heat intolerance (risk of heat stroke). • Contraindications: Narrow-angle glaucoma, GI obstruction. • Antidote: Physostigmine for overdose. Chapter 22: Antihypertensive Drugs • Blood Pressure Regulation: Cardiac Output x Systemic Vascular Resistance. • Drug Classes & Key Points: o ACE Inhibitors (e.g., Captopril): Renal protection in diabetes; causes dry cough; contraindicated in pregnancy. o ARBs: Alternative to ACE inhibitors (no cough). o Calcium Channel Blockers: First-line for black patients (per JNC-8); causes constipation. o Alpha Blockers (e.g., Doxazosin): Risk of first-dose hypotension. o Diuretics: Often used in combination. • Lifelong Therapy: Patient education on adherence is critical. • Common Adverse Effect: Sexual dysfunction (e.g., impotence). Chapter 23: Antianginal Drugs • Types of Angina: Stable (classic), Unstable, Variant (Prinzmetal). • Nitrates: o Sublingual NTG: For acute attacks; call 911 if pain unrelieved after 1 dose. o Transdermal NTG: For prophylaxis; requires a nitrate-free interval (e.g., remove at night) to prevent tolerance. • Beta Blockers: Reduce myocardial oxygen demand; monitor for bradycardia; never stop abruptly. • Calcium Channel Blockers: Used for variant angina. • Administration: IV Nitroglycerin requires special non-PVC tubing. Chapter 24: Heart Failure Drugs • First-Line Therapy: ACE Inhibitors, ARBs, Specific Beta Blockers (e.g., Carvedilol). • Digoxin (Cardiac Glycoside): o Therapeutic Range: 0.5-2 ng/mL. o Toxicity Signs: Nausea, vomiting, visual changes (yellow halos), bradycardia. o Risk Factors for Toxicity: Hypokalemia. o Antidote: Digoxin Immune Fab. • Phosphodiesterase Inhibitors (e.g., Milrinone): Positive inotropic effect; risk of dysrhythmias; incompatible with Furosemide in same IV line. Chapter 25: Antidysrhythmic Drugs • Vaughan Williams Classification: Understanding drug classes (I-IV). • Key Drugs & Uses: o Amiodarone (Class III): Drug of choice for life-threatening ventricular dysrhythmias; many adverse effects (pulmonary, liver, thyroid, blue-gray skin). o Adenosine: For PSVT; administer via rapid IV push; may cause transient asystole. o Diltiazem (Class IV): For rate control in atrial fibrillation. o Lidocaine (Class IB): For ventricular dysrhythmias; reduce dose in liver failure. • Prodysrhythmic Effect: A key risk of all antidysrhythmic drugs (can cause new/worse arrhythmias).

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Chapter 21: Cholinergic-Blocking Drugs Lilley: Pharmacology and the
Nursing Process, 10th Edition


1. A patient has a new prescription for the transdermal form of scopolamine. The
nurse knows that this form of scopolamine is used for which condition?
A. Angina
B. Chronic pain
C. Hypertension
D. Motion sickness
Answer: D
Explanation: The scopolamine transdermal patch is applied behind the ear to prevent the
nausea and vomiting associated with motion sickness. It works by blocking acetylcholine in
the vestibular system and the vomiting center.


2. The nurse is reviewing the indications for atropine sulfate. Atropine is
appropriate for which of these patients? (Select all that apply.)
A. A patient who has suddenly developed symptomatic bradycardia with a heart rate
of 32 beats/min
B. A patient who has suddenly developed symptomatic tachycardia with a heart rate
of 180 beats/min
C. A patient with severe narrow-angle glaucoma
D. A patient who is about to have surgery
E. A patient newly diagnosed with myasthenia gravis
F. A patient with anticholinesterase inhibitor poisoning
Answer: A, D, F
Explanation: Atropine is used to treat symptomatic bradycardia, to reduce secretions
preoperatively, and as an antidote for poisoning from organophosphate pesticides or nerve
agents (anticholinesterase inhibitors). It is contraindicated in narrow-angle glaucoma and
tachycardia.


3. A patient is to receive glycopyrrolate 4 mcg/kg IM 30 minutes before a
procedure. The patient weighs 220 pounds; the medication is available in a
strength of 0.2 mg/mL. Identify how many milliliters of medication the nurse will
draw up into the syringe. _____
Answer: 2

,Explanation: First, convert weight to kg: 220 lbs / 2.2 = 100 kg. Calculate the dose: 4
mcg/kg × 100 kg = 400 mcg. Convert mcg to mg: 400 mcg = 0.4 mg. Finally, calculate the
volume: (0.4 mg) / (0.2 mg/mL) = 2 mL.


4. The nurse is about to administer a stat dose of intravenous atropine sulfate to a
patient who is experiencing a symptomatic cardiac dysrhythmia. During
administration of this drug, the nurse will monitor the patient closely for which
adverse effect?
A. Tachycardia
B. Bradycardia
C. Ectopic beats
D. Cardiac standstill
Answer: A
Explanation: Atropine, an anticholinergic drug, blocks vagal (parasympathetic) stimulation
to the heart, which can result in tachycardia. This is a common and expected effect, but it can
become an adverse effect if the heart rate increases excessively.


5. A patient has a prescription for oxybutynin, an anticholinergic drug. When
reviewing the patient's medical history, which condition, if present, would be
considered a contraindication to therapy with this drug?
A. Diarrhea
B. Hypertension
C. Neurogenic bladder
D. Uncontrolled angle-closure glaucoma
Answer: D
Explanation: Anticholinergic drugs cause mydriasis (pupil dilation), which can increase
intraocular pressure. This is dangerous in patients with angle-closure glaucoma and is a
contraindication. Neurogenic bladder is an indication for oxybutynin.


6. The nurse is reviewing the use of anticholinergic drugs. Anticholinergic drugs
block the effects of which nervous system?
A. Central nervous system
B. Somatic nervous system
C. Sympathetic nervous system
D. Parasympathetic nervous system
Answer: D

, Explanation: Anticholinergic drugs work by blocking the neurotransmitter acetylcholine at
the muscarinic receptors in the parasympathetic nervous system. This inhibition of
parasympathetic nerve impulses leads to the drugs' effects.


7. A patient has received an accidental overdose of intravenous atropine. Which
drug will the nurse prepare to administer?
A. Atenolol
B. Bethanechol
C. Dicyclomine
D. Physostigmine
Answer: D
Explanation: Physostigmine is a cholinesterase inhibitor that is used as an antidote for
severe anticholinergic overdose (e.g., atropine overdose). It works by increasing the
availability of acetylcholine at the receptor sites.


8. A 72-year-old man has a new prescription for an anticholinergic drug. He is an
active man and enjoys outdoor activities, such as golfing and doing his own yard
work. What will the nurse emphasize to him during the teaching session about
his drug therapy?
A. Drowsiness may interfere with his outdoor activities.
B. Increased salivation may occur during exercise and outside activities.
C. Fluid loss may occur as a result of an increased incidence of diarrhea.
D. He will need to take measures to reduce the occurrence of heat stroke during his
activities.
Answer: D
Explanation: Anticholinergic drugs inhibit sweating, which is the body's primary mechanism
for cooling. This puts patients, especially the elderly, at a significantly increased risk for heat
stroke during physical activity or in hot environments.


9. The nurse will monitor for which adverse effect when administering an
anticholinergic drug?
A. Excessive urination
B. Diaphoresis
C. Dry mouth
D. Pupillary constriction
Answer: C

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