NR 531 Advanced Pharmacology II
Exam With Actual Questions & Verified
Answers,Plus Rationales/Expert
Verified For Guaranteed Pass Graded
A+/ 2025/2026 /Latest Update/Instant
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1. Which mechanism of action is associated with ACE inhibitors?
a) Beta-adrenergic receptor blockade
b) Inhibition of angiotensin-converting enzyme
c) Calcium channel blockade
d) Alpha-1 receptor antagonism
b) Inhibition of angiotensin-converting enzyme
Rationale: ACE inhibitors prevent conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II,
leading to vasodilation and decreased blood pressure.
2. A patient on digoxin presents with nausea, vomiting, and visual disturbances. These
symptoms are most indicative of:
a) Hypokalemia
b) Digoxin toxicity
c) Heart failure exacerbation
d) Hypotension
b) Digoxin toxicity
Rationale: Digoxin toxicity commonly manifests with gastrointestinal symptoms,
visual changes, and arrhythmias.
3. Which antibiotic class inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis?
a) Macrolides
b) Aminoglycosides
c) Penicillins
d) Tetracyclines
c) Penicillins
, Rationale: Penicillins and other beta-lactams inhibit peptidoglycan cross-linking,
disrupting cell wall synthesis.
4. A patient with chronic asthma is prescribed a leukotriene receptor antagonist. The
expected effect is:
a) Bronchodilation by beta-2 receptor stimulation
b) Reduction in airway inflammation
c) Increased mucus production
d) Inhibition of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors
b) Reduction in airway inflammation
Rationale: Leukotriene receptor antagonists reduce inflammation and
bronchoconstriction mediated by leukotrienes.
5. Warfarin acts by inhibiting:
a) Platelet aggregation
b) Vitamin K-dependent clotting factors
c) Thrombin directly
d) Fibrinolysis
b) Vitamin K-dependent clotting factors
Rationale: Warfarin inhibits vitamin K epoxide reductase, reducing synthesis of
clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X.
6. Which adverse effect is most associated with statin therapy?
a) Hypotension
b) Rhabdomyolysis
c) Hypoglycemia
d) Bradycardia
b) Rhabdomyolysis
Rationale: Statins can cause muscle breakdown leading to rhabdomyolysis,
especially at higher doses or in combination with certain drugs.
7. Which drug is the first-line treatment for type 2 diabetes mellitus?
a) Glyburide
b) Metformin
c) Pioglitazone
d) Insulin
b) Metformin
Rationale: Metformin reduces hepatic glucose production and increases insulin
sensitivity, making it first-line therapy.
8. A patient develops a dry cough after starting an antihypertensive. The most likely
drug class responsible is:
a) ARBs
, b) ACE inhibitors
c) Calcium channel blockers
d) Diuretics
b) ACE inhibitors
Rationale: ACE inhibitors increase bradykinin levels, which can cause a persistent
dry cough.
9. Which medication is used as a rescue therapy for an acute asthma attack?
a) Montelukast
b) Salmeterol
c) Albuterol
d) Fluticasone
c) Albuterol
Rationale: Albuterol is a short-acting beta-2 agonist that provides rapid
bronchodilation during acute asthma exacerbations.
10. Clopidogrel prevents thrombotic events by:
a) Inhibiting thrombin
b) Irreversibly blocking the P2Y12 ADP receptor on platelets
c) Activating antithrombin III
d) Inhibiting vitamin K epoxide
b) Irreversibly blocking the P2Y12 ADP receptor on platelets
Rationale: Clopidogrel prevents platelet aggregation by inhibiting ADP-mediated
activation.
11. Which antibiotic requires monitoring of peak and trough levels to prevent toxicity?
a) Vancomycin
b) Ciprofloxacin
c) Amoxicillin
d) Doxycycline
a) Vancomycin
Rationale: Vancomycin has a narrow therapeutic index, so serum levels are
monitored to prevent nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity.
12. A patient taking furosemide develops muscle cramps. The most likely cause is:
a) Hyperkalemia
b) Hypokalemia
c) Hypercalcemia
d) Hypernatremia
b) Hypokalemia
Rationale: Loop diuretics like furosemide increase renal potassium excretion,
potentially causing hypokalemia.
Exam With Actual Questions & Verified
Answers,Plus Rationales/Expert
Verified For Guaranteed Pass Graded
A+/ 2025/2026 /Latest Update/Instant
Download Pdf
1. Which mechanism of action is associated with ACE inhibitors?
a) Beta-adrenergic receptor blockade
b) Inhibition of angiotensin-converting enzyme
c) Calcium channel blockade
d) Alpha-1 receptor antagonism
b) Inhibition of angiotensin-converting enzyme
Rationale: ACE inhibitors prevent conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II,
leading to vasodilation and decreased blood pressure.
2. A patient on digoxin presents with nausea, vomiting, and visual disturbances. These
symptoms are most indicative of:
a) Hypokalemia
b) Digoxin toxicity
c) Heart failure exacerbation
d) Hypotension
b) Digoxin toxicity
Rationale: Digoxin toxicity commonly manifests with gastrointestinal symptoms,
visual changes, and arrhythmias.
3. Which antibiotic class inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis?
a) Macrolides
b) Aminoglycosides
c) Penicillins
d) Tetracyclines
c) Penicillins
, Rationale: Penicillins and other beta-lactams inhibit peptidoglycan cross-linking,
disrupting cell wall synthesis.
4. A patient with chronic asthma is prescribed a leukotriene receptor antagonist. The
expected effect is:
a) Bronchodilation by beta-2 receptor stimulation
b) Reduction in airway inflammation
c) Increased mucus production
d) Inhibition of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors
b) Reduction in airway inflammation
Rationale: Leukotriene receptor antagonists reduce inflammation and
bronchoconstriction mediated by leukotrienes.
5. Warfarin acts by inhibiting:
a) Platelet aggregation
b) Vitamin K-dependent clotting factors
c) Thrombin directly
d) Fibrinolysis
b) Vitamin K-dependent clotting factors
Rationale: Warfarin inhibits vitamin K epoxide reductase, reducing synthesis of
clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X.
6. Which adverse effect is most associated with statin therapy?
a) Hypotension
b) Rhabdomyolysis
c) Hypoglycemia
d) Bradycardia
b) Rhabdomyolysis
Rationale: Statins can cause muscle breakdown leading to rhabdomyolysis,
especially at higher doses or in combination with certain drugs.
7. Which drug is the first-line treatment for type 2 diabetes mellitus?
a) Glyburide
b) Metformin
c) Pioglitazone
d) Insulin
b) Metformin
Rationale: Metformin reduces hepatic glucose production and increases insulin
sensitivity, making it first-line therapy.
8. A patient develops a dry cough after starting an antihypertensive. The most likely
drug class responsible is:
a) ARBs
, b) ACE inhibitors
c) Calcium channel blockers
d) Diuretics
b) ACE inhibitors
Rationale: ACE inhibitors increase bradykinin levels, which can cause a persistent
dry cough.
9. Which medication is used as a rescue therapy for an acute asthma attack?
a) Montelukast
b) Salmeterol
c) Albuterol
d) Fluticasone
c) Albuterol
Rationale: Albuterol is a short-acting beta-2 agonist that provides rapid
bronchodilation during acute asthma exacerbations.
10. Clopidogrel prevents thrombotic events by:
a) Inhibiting thrombin
b) Irreversibly blocking the P2Y12 ADP receptor on platelets
c) Activating antithrombin III
d) Inhibiting vitamin K epoxide
b) Irreversibly blocking the P2Y12 ADP receptor on platelets
Rationale: Clopidogrel prevents platelet aggregation by inhibiting ADP-mediated
activation.
11. Which antibiotic requires monitoring of peak and trough levels to prevent toxicity?
a) Vancomycin
b) Ciprofloxacin
c) Amoxicillin
d) Doxycycline
a) Vancomycin
Rationale: Vancomycin has a narrow therapeutic index, so serum levels are
monitored to prevent nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity.
12. A patient taking furosemide develops muscle cramps. The most likely cause is:
a) Hyperkalemia
b) Hypokalemia
c) Hypercalcemia
d) Hypernatremia
b) Hypokalemia
Rationale: Loop diuretics like furosemide increase renal potassium excretion,
potentially causing hypokalemia.
