NSG 3280 Pathophysiology | Exam 1 Practice Questions
And Answers | 2025-2026 Updated Tests
1. An occupational health nurse working with police officers wishes to apply Selye's general adaptation
syndrome theory in practice. Which concept should the nurse apply?
A. The alarm stage involves the release of cortisol catecholamines
B. The nature of a stress response is determined by the objective severity of the stressort
C. Systemic illnesses can sometimes result from the resistance stage of stress response
D. Periods of stress are developmentally negative for the person experiencing them
Answer: A, Rationale: The alarm stage activates the HPA axis, releasing catecholamines (e.g.,
epinephrine) and cortisol. These prepare the body for "fight or flight."
(Ch. 2 – Homeostasis and Stress Response)
2. A 45-year-old woman with a new diagnosis of shingles and acute, severe neuropathic pain is experiencing
which stage of Selye's general adaptation syndrome?
A. General Exhaustion Syndrome (GAS)
B. Exhaustion
C. Alarm
D. Persistence
Answer: C, Rationale: Severe acute pain indicates a new threat, activating the alarm stage.
Resistance applies to prolonged stress, not acute onset. (Ch. 2 – Stress Responses)
3. A client who has been diagnosed with type 1 diabetes has been instructed to maintain “tight” control of
their diabetes to prevent which chronic complication(s)? Select all that apply.
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Nephropathy
C. Retinopathy
D. Peripheral vascular disease
E. Somatic neuropathy
Answer: B, C, D. Rationale: Tight glucose control prevents nephropathy, retinopathy, and peripheral
vascular disease, not hypoglycemia (which is a side effect of insulin).
(Ch. 41 – Diabetes Mellitus)
,4. The nurse is planning education on the importance of wearing a helmet when riding a bike. What level of
prevention is the nurse describing?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Quaternary
Answer: A, Rationale: Primary prevention aims to avoid disease/injury before it occurs, like helmets.
(Ch. 1 – Introduction to Pathophysiology)
5. A 60 year-old man has long managed his type 1 diabetes effectively with a combination of vigilant blood
sugar monitoring, subcutaneous insulin administration, and conscientious eating habits. This morning,
however, his wife has noted that he appears pale and clammy and appears to be in a stupor, though he is
responsive. She suspects that he has made an error in his insulin administration and that he is
experiencing a hypoglycemic episode. Which action should be the wife's first choice?
A. Administration of 15 to 20 g of glucose in a concentrated carbohydrate source.
B. Administration of subcutaneous glucagon.
C. IV infusion of 50% dextrose and water solution.
D. Careful monitoring for level of consciousness and resolution of hypoglycemia.
Answer: A. Rationale: Primary prevention aims to avoid disease/injury before it occurs, like helmets.
(Ch. 1 – Introduction to Pathophysiology)
6. The formation of glucose or glycogen from protein or fat compounds is referred to as
A. glycolysis
B. glucagon
C. gluconeogenesis
D. Glycogenolysis
Answer: C, Gluconeogenesis is the synthesis of glucose from noncarbohydrates like amino acids and
fats. (Ch. 42 – Metabolic Disorders)
7. Which statement best describes the normal physiologic handling of excess glucose in the body?
A. Blood glucose levels are primarily a result of the timing, quantity, and character of food intake.
B. Ingested glucose that is not needed for cellular metabolism circulates in the blood until it is taken
up to meet cellular needs.
C. Blood glucose levels are kept in a steady state by selective excretion and reuptake by the kidneys.
D. Glucose that exceeds metabolic needs is converted and stored by the liver.
, Answer: D. Rationale: Excess glucose is stored in the liver as glycogen
(glycogenesis), not circulating indefinitely. (Ch. 42 – Glucose Metabolism)
8. If a client with type 1 diabetes presented in an unconscious state, how would the nurse know that the
client was experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis?
A. Pale moist skin
B. Thirst and poor skin turgor
C. Deep rapid respirations and fruity breath odor
D. Tremors and strong rapid pulse
Answer: C, Rationale: Kussmaul respirations and acetone breath indicate diabetic ketoacidosis. (Ch.
41 – Type 1 Diabetes)
9. A multidisciplinary healthcare team operates a program aimed at the prevention, identification, and
treatment of diabetes on a large Indian reservation. Which aspect of the program would most likely be
classified as secondary prevention?
A. Regularly scheduled wound dressing changes for clients who have foot ulcers secondary to
peripheral neuropathy and impaired wound healing.
B. Teaching school children how a nutritious, traditional diet can lessen their chances of
developing adult-onset diabetes.
C. Staffing a booth where community residents who are attending a baseball tournament can
have their blood glucose levels checked.
D. Administering oral antihyperglycemic medications to clients who have a diagnosis of diabetes.
Answer: C, Rationale: Secondary prevention detects disease early before symptoms arise (e.g.,
glucose screening). (Ch. 1 – Levels of Prevention)
10. A 77-year-old man is a hospital inpatient admitted for exacerbation of his chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease (COPD), and a respiratory therapist (RT) is assessing the client for the first time. Which aspect of
the client's current state of health would be best characterized as a symptom rather than a sign?
A. The client's oxygen saturation is 83% by pulse oximetry
B. The client notes that he has increased work of breathing when lying supine
C. The RT hears diminished breath sounds to the client's lower lung fields bilaterally
D. The client's respiratory rate is 31 breaths per minute
Answer: B, Rationale: A symptom is subjective (what the patient feels), while signs are
observed/measured. (Ch. 1 – Clinical Manifestations)
And Answers | 2025-2026 Updated Tests
1. An occupational health nurse working with police officers wishes to apply Selye's general adaptation
syndrome theory in practice. Which concept should the nurse apply?
A. The alarm stage involves the release of cortisol catecholamines
B. The nature of a stress response is determined by the objective severity of the stressort
C. Systemic illnesses can sometimes result from the resistance stage of stress response
D. Periods of stress are developmentally negative for the person experiencing them
Answer: A, Rationale: The alarm stage activates the HPA axis, releasing catecholamines (e.g.,
epinephrine) and cortisol. These prepare the body for "fight or flight."
(Ch. 2 – Homeostasis and Stress Response)
2. A 45-year-old woman with a new diagnosis of shingles and acute, severe neuropathic pain is experiencing
which stage of Selye's general adaptation syndrome?
A. General Exhaustion Syndrome (GAS)
B. Exhaustion
C. Alarm
D. Persistence
Answer: C, Rationale: Severe acute pain indicates a new threat, activating the alarm stage.
Resistance applies to prolonged stress, not acute onset. (Ch. 2 – Stress Responses)
3. A client who has been diagnosed with type 1 diabetes has been instructed to maintain “tight” control of
their diabetes to prevent which chronic complication(s)? Select all that apply.
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Nephropathy
C. Retinopathy
D. Peripheral vascular disease
E. Somatic neuropathy
Answer: B, C, D. Rationale: Tight glucose control prevents nephropathy, retinopathy, and peripheral
vascular disease, not hypoglycemia (which is a side effect of insulin).
(Ch. 41 – Diabetes Mellitus)
,4. The nurse is planning education on the importance of wearing a helmet when riding a bike. What level of
prevention is the nurse describing?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Quaternary
Answer: A, Rationale: Primary prevention aims to avoid disease/injury before it occurs, like helmets.
(Ch. 1 – Introduction to Pathophysiology)
5. A 60 year-old man has long managed his type 1 diabetes effectively with a combination of vigilant blood
sugar monitoring, subcutaneous insulin administration, and conscientious eating habits. This morning,
however, his wife has noted that he appears pale and clammy and appears to be in a stupor, though he is
responsive. She suspects that he has made an error in his insulin administration and that he is
experiencing a hypoglycemic episode. Which action should be the wife's first choice?
A. Administration of 15 to 20 g of glucose in a concentrated carbohydrate source.
B. Administration of subcutaneous glucagon.
C. IV infusion of 50% dextrose and water solution.
D. Careful monitoring for level of consciousness and resolution of hypoglycemia.
Answer: A. Rationale: Primary prevention aims to avoid disease/injury before it occurs, like helmets.
(Ch. 1 – Introduction to Pathophysiology)
6. The formation of glucose or glycogen from protein or fat compounds is referred to as
A. glycolysis
B. glucagon
C. gluconeogenesis
D. Glycogenolysis
Answer: C, Gluconeogenesis is the synthesis of glucose from noncarbohydrates like amino acids and
fats. (Ch. 42 – Metabolic Disorders)
7. Which statement best describes the normal physiologic handling of excess glucose in the body?
A. Blood glucose levels are primarily a result of the timing, quantity, and character of food intake.
B. Ingested glucose that is not needed for cellular metabolism circulates in the blood until it is taken
up to meet cellular needs.
C. Blood glucose levels are kept in a steady state by selective excretion and reuptake by the kidneys.
D. Glucose that exceeds metabolic needs is converted and stored by the liver.
, Answer: D. Rationale: Excess glucose is stored in the liver as glycogen
(glycogenesis), not circulating indefinitely. (Ch. 42 – Glucose Metabolism)
8. If a client with type 1 diabetes presented in an unconscious state, how would the nurse know that the
client was experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis?
A. Pale moist skin
B. Thirst and poor skin turgor
C. Deep rapid respirations and fruity breath odor
D. Tremors and strong rapid pulse
Answer: C, Rationale: Kussmaul respirations and acetone breath indicate diabetic ketoacidosis. (Ch.
41 – Type 1 Diabetes)
9. A multidisciplinary healthcare team operates a program aimed at the prevention, identification, and
treatment of diabetes on a large Indian reservation. Which aspect of the program would most likely be
classified as secondary prevention?
A. Regularly scheduled wound dressing changes for clients who have foot ulcers secondary to
peripheral neuropathy and impaired wound healing.
B. Teaching school children how a nutritious, traditional diet can lessen their chances of
developing adult-onset diabetes.
C. Staffing a booth where community residents who are attending a baseball tournament can
have their blood glucose levels checked.
D. Administering oral antihyperglycemic medications to clients who have a diagnosis of diabetes.
Answer: C, Rationale: Secondary prevention detects disease early before symptoms arise (e.g.,
glucose screening). (Ch. 1 – Levels of Prevention)
10. A 77-year-old man is a hospital inpatient admitted for exacerbation of his chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease (COPD), and a respiratory therapist (RT) is assessing the client for the first time. Which aspect of
the client's current state of health would be best characterized as a symptom rather than a sign?
A. The client's oxygen saturation is 83% by pulse oximetry
B. The client notes that he has increased work of breathing when lying supine
C. The RT hears diminished breath sounds to the client's lower lung fields bilaterally
D. The client's respiratory rate is 31 breaths per minute
Answer: B, Rationale: A symptom is subjective (what the patient feels), while signs are
observed/measured. (Ch. 1 – Clinical Manifestations)
