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CACI Study Questions and Answers (100%
Correct Answers) Already Graded A+
A female client with type 2 diabetes mellitus reports dysuria. Which
assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the
healthcare provider? A) Suprapubic pain and distention. B)
Bounding pulse at 100 beats/minute. C) Fingerstick glucose of 300
mg/dl. D) Small vesicular perineal lesions.Ans: C) Fingerstick
© 2025 Assignment Expert
glucose of 300 mg/dl. Elevated fingerstick glucose levels (C) spill
glucose in the urine and provide a medium for bacterial growth.
(A, B, and D) should be reported, but the priority (C) is to notify the
healthcare provider for prescriptions to manage client to a
Guru01 - Stuvia
euglycemic level.
A nurse is preparing to insert an IV catheter after applying an
eutectic mixture of lidocaine and prilocaine (EMLA), a topical
anesthetic cream. What action should the nurse take to maximize
its therapeutic effect? A) Rub a liberal amount of cream into the
skin thoroughly. B) Cover the skin with a gauze dressing after
applying the cream. C) Leave the cream on the skin for 1 to 2
hours before the procedure. D) Use the smallest amount of cream
necessary to numb the skin surface.Ans: C) Leave the cream on
the skin for 1 to 2 hours before the procedure. Topical anesthetic
creams, such as EMLA, should be applied to the puncture site at
least 60 minutes to 2 hours before the insertion of an IV catheter
(C). (A, B, and D) do not ensure a therapeutic response.
The nurse is preparing an adult client for an upper gastrointestinal
(UGI) series. Which information should the nurse include in the
teaching plan? A) The x-ray procedure may last for several hours.
B) A nasogastric tube (NGT) is inserted to instill the barium. C)
Enemas are given to empty the bowel after the procedure. D)
Nothing by mouth is allowed for 6 to 8 hours before the study.Ans:
D) Nothing by mouth is allowed for 6 to 8 hours before the study.
, 2
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The client should be NPO for at least 6 hours before the UGI (D).
(A) is not typical for this procedure. A NGT is not needed to instill
the barium (B) unless the client is unable to swallow. A laxative, not
enemas (C), is given after the procedure to help expel the barium.
A client is admitted to the hospital with a traumatic brain injury
after his head violently struck a brick wall during a gang fight.
Which finding is most important for the nurse to assess further? A) A
scalp laceration oozing blood. B) Serosanguineous nasal
drainage. C) Headache rated 10 on a 0-10 scale. D) Dizziness,
nausea and transient confusion.Ans: B) Serosanguineous nasal
drainage. Any nasal discharge should be evaluated (B) to
determine the presence of cerebral spinal fluid which indicates a
© 2025 Assignment Expert
tear in the dura making the client susceptible to meningitis. The
scalp is highly vascular and results in blood oozing from wounds
(A). Pain is expected and can be treated after further assessment
of the presence of nasal discharge (C). Dizziness, nausea, and
Guru01 - Stuvia
transient confusion (D) are expected manifestations following a
traumatic brain injury and need ongoing monitoring, but (B) is
most important.
Which finding should the nurse identify as an indication of carbon
monoxide poisoning in a client who experienced a burn injury
during a house fire? A) Pulse oximetry reading of 80%. B) Expiratory
stridor and nasal flaring. C) Cherry red color to the mucous
membranes. D) Presence of carbonaceous particles in
sputum.Ans: C The saturation of hemoglobin molecules with
carbon monoxide and the subsequent vasodilation induce a
cherry red color of the mucous membranes (C) in a client who
experienced a burn injury during a house fire. Super heated air or
smoke inhalation damage the lining of the airways which causes
swelling, decreased oxygenation (A), and an expiratory stridor (B).
Mouth breathing during the fire allows the inhalation of soot that is
seen as particles in the client's sputum (D).
The nurse is assessing a client with a chest tube that is attached to
suction and a closed drainage system. Which finding is most
important for the nurse to further assess? A) Upper chest
, 3
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subcutaneous emphysema. B) Tidaling (fluctuation) of fluid in the
water-seal chamber. C) Constant air bubbling in the suction-
control chamber. D) Pain rated 8 (0-10) at the insertion site.Ans: A
Subcutaneous emphysema (A) is a complication and indicates air
is leaking beneath the skin. Tidaling in the water-seal chamber
and constant bubbling with suction in the suction-control
chamber (B and C) are expected findings that indicate the
closed drainage system is working. Pain at the insertion site is an
expected finding (D) and the prescribed analgesia should be
given to assist the client to breathe deeply and facilitate lung
expansion.
In planning care for a client with an acute stroke resulting in right-
© 2025 Assignment Expert
sided hemiplegia, which positioning should the nurse should use to
maintain optimal functioning? A) Mid-Fowler's with knees
supported. B) Supine with trochanter rolls to the hips. C) Sim's
position alternated with right lateral position q2 hours. D) Left
Guru01 - Stuvia
lateral, supine, brief periods on the right side, and proneAns: D
After an acute stroke, a positioning and turning schedule that
minimizes lying on the affected side, which can impair circulation
and cause pain, and includes the prone position (D) to help
prevent flexion contractures of the hips, prepares the client for
optimal functioning and ambulating. (A, B, and C) do not
maintain the client for optimal functioning.
A client's susceptibility to ulcerative colitis is most likely due to
which aspect in the client's history? A) Jewish European ancestry.
B) H. pylori bowel infection. C) Family history of irritable bowel
syndrome. D) Age between 25 and 55 years.Ans: A Ulcerative
colitis is 4 to 5 times more common among individuals of Jewish
European or Ashkenazi ancestry (A). H. pylori is associated with
stomach inflammation and ulcer development (B). Irritable bowel
syndrome (C) does not progress to inflammatory bowel disease.
UC has a peak between the ages of 15 and 25 years, then a
second peak between 55 and 65 years, not (D).
An ER nurse is completing an assessment on a patient that is alert
but struggles to answer questions. When she attempts to talk, she
, 4
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slurs her speech and appears very frightened. What additional
clinical manifestation does the nurse expect to find if patient's
symptoms have been caused by a brain attack (stroke)? A. A
carotid bruit B. A hypotensive blood pressure C. hyperreflexic
deep tendon reflexes. D. Decreased bowel soundsAns: A) A
carotid bruit. Rationale: the carotid artery (artery to the brain) is
narrowed in clients with a brain attack. A bruit is an abnormal
sound heard on auscultation resulting from interference with
normal blood flow. Usually the blood pressure is hypertensive.
Initially flaccid paralysis occurs, resulting in hyporefkexic deep
tendon reflexes. Bowel sounds are not indicative of a brain attack.
Which clinical manifestation further supports an assessment of a
© 2025 Assignment Expert
left-sided brain attack? A) Visual field deficit on the left side. B)
Spatial-perceptual deficits. C) Paresthesia of the left side. D)
Global aphasia.Ans: D) Global aphasia Rationale: Global aphasia
refers to difficulty speaking, listening, and understanding, as well
Guru01 - Stuvia
as difficulty reading and writing. Symptoms vary from person to
person. Aphasia may occur secondary to any brain injury involving
the left hemisphere. Visual field deficits, spatial-perceptual deficits,
and paresthsia of the left side usually occur with right-sided brain
attack.
When preparing a patient for a noncontrast computed
tomography (CT) scan STAT, what nursing intervention should the
nurse implement? A) Determine if the client has any allergies to
iodine B) Explain that the client will not be able to move her head
throughout the CT scan. C) Pre-medicate the client to decrease
pain prior to having the procedure. D) Provide an explanation of
relaxation exercises prior to the procedure.Ans: B) Explain that the
client will not be able to move her head throughout the CT scan.
Rationale: Because head motion will distort the images, Nancy will
have to remain still throughout the procedure. Allergies to iodine is
important if contrast dye is being used for the CT scan. Pre-
medicating the client to decrease pain prior to the procedure is
unnecessary because CT scanning is a noninvasive and painless
procedure. Providing an explanation of relaxation exercises prior
For Expert help and assignment solutions, +254707240657
CACI Study Questions and Answers (100%
Correct Answers) Already Graded A+
A female client with type 2 diabetes mellitus reports dysuria. Which
assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the
healthcare provider? A) Suprapubic pain and distention. B)
Bounding pulse at 100 beats/minute. C) Fingerstick glucose of 300
mg/dl. D) Small vesicular perineal lesions.Ans: C) Fingerstick
© 2025 Assignment Expert
glucose of 300 mg/dl. Elevated fingerstick glucose levels (C) spill
glucose in the urine and provide a medium for bacterial growth.
(A, B, and D) should be reported, but the priority (C) is to notify the
healthcare provider for prescriptions to manage client to a
Guru01 - Stuvia
euglycemic level.
A nurse is preparing to insert an IV catheter after applying an
eutectic mixture of lidocaine and prilocaine (EMLA), a topical
anesthetic cream. What action should the nurse take to maximize
its therapeutic effect? A) Rub a liberal amount of cream into the
skin thoroughly. B) Cover the skin with a gauze dressing after
applying the cream. C) Leave the cream on the skin for 1 to 2
hours before the procedure. D) Use the smallest amount of cream
necessary to numb the skin surface.Ans: C) Leave the cream on
the skin for 1 to 2 hours before the procedure. Topical anesthetic
creams, such as EMLA, should be applied to the puncture site at
least 60 minutes to 2 hours before the insertion of an IV catheter
(C). (A, B, and D) do not ensure a therapeutic response.
The nurse is preparing an adult client for an upper gastrointestinal
(UGI) series. Which information should the nurse include in the
teaching plan? A) The x-ray procedure may last for several hours.
B) A nasogastric tube (NGT) is inserted to instill the barium. C)
Enemas are given to empty the bowel after the procedure. D)
Nothing by mouth is allowed for 6 to 8 hours before the study.Ans:
D) Nothing by mouth is allowed for 6 to 8 hours before the study.
, 2
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The client should be NPO for at least 6 hours before the UGI (D).
(A) is not typical for this procedure. A NGT is not needed to instill
the barium (B) unless the client is unable to swallow. A laxative, not
enemas (C), is given after the procedure to help expel the barium.
A client is admitted to the hospital with a traumatic brain injury
after his head violently struck a brick wall during a gang fight.
Which finding is most important for the nurse to assess further? A) A
scalp laceration oozing blood. B) Serosanguineous nasal
drainage. C) Headache rated 10 on a 0-10 scale. D) Dizziness,
nausea and transient confusion.Ans: B) Serosanguineous nasal
drainage. Any nasal discharge should be evaluated (B) to
determine the presence of cerebral spinal fluid which indicates a
© 2025 Assignment Expert
tear in the dura making the client susceptible to meningitis. The
scalp is highly vascular and results in blood oozing from wounds
(A). Pain is expected and can be treated after further assessment
of the presence of nasal discharge (C). Dizziness, nausea, and
Guru01 - Stuvia
transient confusion (D) are expected manifestations following a
traumatic brain injury and need ongoing monitoring, but (B) is
most important.
Which finding should the nurse identify as an indication of carbon
monoxide poisoning in a client who experienced a burn injury
during a house fire? A) Pulse oximetry reading of 80%. B) Expiratory
stridor and nasal flaring. C) Cherry red color to the mucous
membranes. D) Presence of carbonaceous particles in
sputum.Ans: C The saturation of hemoglobin molecules with
carbon monoxide and the subsequent vasodilation induce a
cherry red color of the mucous membranes (C) in a client who
experienced a burn injury during a house fire. Super heated air or
smoke inhalation damage the lining of the airways which causes
swelling, decreased oxygenation (A), and an expiratory stridor (B).
Mouth breathing during the fire allows the inhalation of soot that is
seen as particles in the client's sputum (D).
The nurse is assessing a client with a chest tube that is attached to
suction and a closed drainage system. Which finding is most
important for the nurse to further assess? A) Upper chest
, 3
For Expert help and assignment solutions, +254707240657
subcutaneous emphysema. B) Tidaling (fluctuation) of fluid in the
water-seal chamber. C) Constant air bubbling in the suction-
control chamber. D) Pain rated 8 (0-10) at the insertion site.Ans: A
Subcutaneous emphysema (A) is a complication and indicates air
is leaking beneath the skin. Tidaling in the water-seal chamber
and constant bubbling with suction in the suction-control
chamber (B and C) are expected findings that indicate the
closed drainage system is working. Pain at the insertion site is an
expected finding (D) and the prescribed analgesia should be
given to assist the client to breathe deeply and facilitate lung
expansion.
In planning care for a client with an acute stroke resulting in right-
© 2025 Assignment Expert
sided hemiplegia, which positioning should the nurse should use to
maintain optimal functioning? A) Mid-Fowler's with knees
supported. B) Supine with trochanter rolls to the hips. C) Sim's
position alternated with right lateral position q2 hours. D) Left
Guru01 - Stuvia
lateral, supine, brief periods on the right side, and proneAns: D
After an acute stroke, a positioning and turning schedule that
minimizes lying on the affected side, which can impair circulation
and cause pain, and includes the prone position (D) to help
prevent flexion contractures of the hips, prepares the client for
optimal functioning and ambulating. (A, B, and C) do not
maintain the client for optimal functioning.
A client's susceptibility to ulcerative colitis is most likely due to
which aspect in the client's history? A) Jewish European ancestry.
B) H. pylori bowel infection. C) Family history of irritable bowel
syndrome. D) Age between 25 and 55 years.Ans: A Ulcerative
colitis is 4 to 5 times more common among individuals of Jewish
European or Ashkenazi ancestry (A). H. pylori is associated with
stomach inflammation and ulcer development (B). Irritable bowel
syndrome (C) does not progress to inflammatory bowel disease.
UC has a peak between the ages of 15 and 25 years, then a
second peak between 55 and 65 years, not (D).
An ER nurse is completing an assessment on a patient that is alert
but struggles to answer questions. When she attempts to talk, she
, 4
For Expert help and assignment solutions, +254707240657
slurs her speech and appears very frightened. What additional
clinical manifestation does the nurse expect to find if patient's
symptoms have been caused by a brain attack (stroke)? A. A
carotid bruit B. A hypotensive blood pressure C. hyperreflexic
deep tendon reflexes. D. Decreased bowel soundsAns: A) A
carotid bruit. Rationale: the carotid artery (artery to the brain) is
narrowed in clients with a brain attack. A bruit is an abnormal
sound heard on auscultation resulting from interference with
normal blood flow. Usually the blood pressure is hypertensive.
Initially flaccid paralysis occurs, resulting in hyporefkexic deep
tendon reflexes. Bowel sounds are not indicative of a brain attack.
Which clinical manifestation further supports an assessment of a
© 2025 Assignment Expert
left-sided brain attack? A) Visual field deficit on the left side. B)
Spatial-perceptual deficits. C) Paresthesia of the left side. D)
Global aphasia.Ans: D) Global aphasia Rationale: Global aphasia
refers to difficulty speaking, listening, and understanding, as well
Guru01 - Stuvia
as difficulty reading and writing. Symptoms vary from person to
person. Aphasia may occur secondary to any brain injury involving
the left hemisphere. Visual field deficits, spatial-perceptual deficits,
and paresthsia of the left side usually occur with right-sided brain
attack.
When preparing a patient for a noncontrast computed
tomography (CT) scan STAT, what nursing intervention should the
nurse implement? A) Determine if the client has any allergies to
iodine B) Explain that the client will not be able to move her head
throughout the CT scan. C) Pre-medicate the client to decrease
pain prior to having the procedure. D) Provide an explanation of
relaxation exercises prior to the procedure.Ans: B) Explain that the
client will not be able to move her head throughout the CT scan.
Rationale: Because head motion will distort the images, Nancy will
have to remain still throughout the procedure. Allergies to iodine is
important if contrast dye is being used for the CT scan. Pre-
medicating the client to decrease pain prior to the procedure is
unnecessary because CT scanning is a noninvasive and painless
procedure. Providing an explanation of relaxation exercises prior
