Nightingale College BSN 315 HESI Practice
1Pharmacology II Actual Exam Questions &
Correct Answers 2025 Latest
Which dosing schedule should the nurse teach the client to observe for a controlled-release
oxycodone prescription?
As needed. Every 12 hours.
,Every 24 hours.
Every 4 to 6 hours. Rationale
A controlled-release oxycodone provides long-acting analgesia to relieve moderate to severe pain,
so a dosing schedule of every 12 hours provides the best around-the-clock pain management.
Controlled-release oxycodone is not prescribed for breakthrough pain on a PRN or as needed
schedule. Using a schedule of every 4 to 6 hours may jeopardize patient safety due to cumulative
effects.
Following the administration of sublingual nitroglycerin to a client experiencing an acute anginal
attack, which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the desired effect has been achieved?
Client states chest pain is relieved. Client's pulse decreases from 120 to 90.
Client's systolic blood pressure decreases from 180 to 90. Client's SaO2 level increases from 92%
to 96%.
Rationale
Nitroglycerin reduces myocardial oxygen consumption which decreases ischemia and reduces chest
pain.
The healthcare provider prescribes naproxen (Naproxen) twice daily for a client with osteoarthritis
of the hands. The client tells the nurse that the drug does not seem to be effective after three
weeks. Which is the best response for the nurse to provide?
The frequency of the dosing is necessary to increase the effectiveness. Therapeutic blood levels of
this drug are reached in 4 to 6 weeks.
Another type of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug may be indicated. Systemic corticosteroids are
the next drugs of choice for pain relief. Rationale
Individual responses to nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs are vary from person to person, so
another nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID) may be indicated for this particular client.
A client asks the nurse if glipizide (Glucotrol) is an oral insulin. Which response should the nurse
provide?
"Yes, it is an oral insulin and has the same actions and properties as intermediate insulin."
"Yes, it is an oral insulin and is distributed, metabolized, and excreted in the same manner as
insulin."
"No, it is not an oral insulin and can be used only when some beta cell function is present."
, "No, it is not an oral insulin, but it is effective for those who are resistant to injectable insulins."
Rationale
An effective oral form of insulin has not yet been developed because when insulin is taken orally, it
is destroyed by digestive enzymes. Glipizide (Glucotrol) is an oral hypoglycemic agent that
enhances pancreatic production of insulin.
An older client with a decreased percentage of lean body mass is likely to receive a prescription
that is adjusted based on which pharmacokinetic process?
Absorption. Metabolism. Elimination. Distribution. Rationale
A decreased lean body mass in an older adult affects the distribution of drugs which affects the
pharmacokinetics of drugs. In contrast, decreased gastric pH, delayed gastric emptying, decreased
splanchnic blood flow, decreased gastrointestinal absorption surface areas and motility affect
absorption in the older adult population. Decreased hepatic blood flow, decreased hepatic mass,
and decreased activity of hepatic enzymes affect metabolism in older adults.
Decreased renal blood flow, decreased glomerular filtration rate, decreased tubular secretion, and
decreased number of nephrons affects elimination in an older adult.Which nursing diagnosis is
important to include in the plan of care for a client receiving the angiotensin-2 receptor antagonist
irbesartan (Avapro)?
Fluid volume deficit. Risk
for infection.
Risk for injury.
Impaired sleep patterns. Rationale
Avapro is an antihypertensive agent, which acts by blocking vasoconstrictor effects at various
receptor sites. This can cause hypotension and dizziness, placing the client at high risk for injury.
An adult client is given a prescription for a scopolamine patch (Transderm Scop) to prevent motion
sickness while on a cruise. Which information should the nurse provide to the client?
Apply the patch at least 4 hours prior to departure. Change the
patch every other day while on the cruise. Place the patch on a
hairless area at the base of the skull. Drink no more than 2 alcoholic
drinks during the cruise.
Rationale
Scopolamine, an anticholinergic agent, is used to prevent motion sickness and has a peak onset in
6 hours, so the client should be instructed to apply the patch at least 4 hours before departure on
the cruise ship. The duration of the transdermal patch is 72 hours. Scolopamine blocks muscarinic
receptors in the inner ear and to the vomiting center, so the best application site of the patch is
behind the ear. Anticholinergic medications are CNS depressants, so the client should be
instructed to avoid alcohol while using the patch.
1Pharmacology II Actual Exam Questions &
Correct Answers 2025 Latest
Which dosing schedule should the nurse teach the client to observe for a controlled-release
oxycodone prescription?
As needed. Every 12 hours.
,Every 24 hours.
Every 4 to 6 hours. Rationale
A controlled-release oxycodone provides long-acting analgesia to relieve moderate to severe pain,
so a dosing schedule of every 12 hours provides the best around-the-clock pain management.
Controlled-release oxycodone is not prescribed for breakthrough pain on a PRN or as needed
schedule. Using a schedule of every 4 to 6 hours may jeopardize patient safety due to cumulative
effects.
Following the administration of sublingual nitroglycerin to a client experiencing an acute anginal
attack, which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the desired effect has been achieved?
Client states chest pain is relieved. Client's pulse decreases from 120 to 90.
Client's systolic blood pressure decreases from 180 to 90. Client's SaO2 level increases from 92%
to 96%.
Rationale
Nitroglycerin reduces myocardial oxygen consumption which decreases ischemia and reduces chest
pain.
The healthcare provider prescribes naproxen (Naproxen) twice daily for a client with osteoarthritis
of the hands. The client tells the nurse that the drug does not seem to be effective after three
weeks. Which is the best response for the nurse to provide?
The frequency of the dosing is necessary to increase the effectiveness. Therapeutic blood levels of
this drug are reached in 4 to 6 weeks.
Another type of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug may be indicated. Systemic corticosteroids are
the next drugs of choice for pain relief. Rationale
Individual responses to nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs are vary from person to person, so
another nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID) may be indicated for this particular client.
A client asks the nurse if glipizide (Glucotrol) is an oral insulin. Which response should the nurse
provide?
"Yes, it is an oral insulin and has the same actions and properties as intermediate insulin."
"Yes, it is an oral insulin and is distributed, metabolized, and excreted in the same manner as
insulin."
"No, it is not an oral insulin and can be used only when some beta cell function is present."
, "No, it is not an oral insulin, but it is effective for those who are resistant to injectable insulins."
Rationale
An effective oral form of insulin has not yet been developed because when insulin is taken orally, it
is destroyed by digestive enzymes. Glipizide (Glucotrol) is an oral hypoglycemic agent that
enhances pancreatic production of insulin.
An older client with a decreased percentage of lean body mass is likely to receive a prescription
that is adjusted based on which pharmacokinetic process?
Absorption. Metabolism. Elimination. Distribution. Rationale
A decreased lean body mass in an older adult affects the distribution of drugs which affects the
pharmacokinetics of drugs. In contrast, decreased gastric pH, delayed gastric emptying, decreased
splanchnic blood flow, decreased gastrointestinal absorption surface areas and motility affect
absorption in the older adult population. Decreased hepatic blood flow, decreased hepatic mass,
and decreased activity of hepatic enzymes affect metabolism in older adults.
Decreased renal blood flow, decreased glomerular filtration rate, decreased tubular secretion, and
decreased number of nephrons affects elimination in an older adult.Which nursing diagnosis is
important to include in the plan of care for a client receiving the angiotensin-2 receptor antagonist
irbesartan (Avapro)?
Fluid volume deficit. Risk
for infection.
Risk for injury.
Impaired sleep patterns. Rationale
Avapro is an antihypertensive agent, which acts by blocking vasoconstrictor effects at various
receptor sites. This can cause hypotension and dizziness, placing the client at high risk for injury.
An adult client is given a prescription for a scopolamine patch (Transderm Scop) to prevent motion
sickness while on a cruise. Which information should the nurse provide to the client?
Apply the patch at least 4 hours prior to departure. Change the
patch every other day while on the cruise. Place the patch on a
hairless area at the base of the skull. Drink no more than 2 alcoholic
drinks during the cruise.
Rationale
Scopolamine, an anticholinergic agent, is used to prevent motion sickness and has a peak onset in
6 hours, so the client should be instructed to apply the patch at least 4 hours before departure on
the cruise ship. The duration of the transdermal patch is 72 hours. Scolopamine blocks muscarinic
receptors in the inner ear and to the vomiting center, so the best application site of the patch is
behind the ear. Anticholinergic medications are CNS depressants, so the client should be
instructed to avoid alcohol while using the patch.
