CEA Prep: Full Practice Exam Latest
2025-2026 Edition. Questions and
Correct Answers. Graded A
1st line treatment for generalized anxiety disorder:
*buspar
*zoloft
*wellbutrin
*remeron - ANS zoloft
Rationale: SSRIs increase serotonin levels in the brain, which helps
improve mood and reduce anxiety. Serotonin is a neurotransmitter
associated with mood regulation and anxiety reduction. By blocking the
reabsorption (reuptake) of serotonin into neurons, Zoloft allows more
serotonin to be available in the brain, which can help improve mood and
reduce anxiety.
A "code blue" is called on your patient in the waiting room of your urgent
care. When you arrive, cardiac monitoring is applied and their rhythm
appears to be normal sinus rhythm with a rate of 80. On palpation over the
carotid artery, you do not feel a pulse. What is the name of this cardiac
rhythm?
*Idioventricular rhythm
*Junctional Tachycardia
*Wandering Atrial Pacemaker (WAP)
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*Pulseless Electrical Activity (PEA) - ANS Pulseless Electrical Activity
(PEA)
Rationale: PEA appears as a normal rhythm without a pulse. Idioventricular
rhythm is very slow (20-40), Junctional tachycardia and WAP both without
pulses are considered PEA also.
A 13 year old female who is diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia is being
treated with ferrous sulfate. Proper treatment typically leads to the
resolution of anemia within:
*3 months.
*4 weeks.
*8 months.
*2 weeks. - ANS3 months.
Rationale: Due to the time it takes for the underlying deficit to be corrected
as well as the growth of new red blood cells to mature, 3 months are
typically needed to show recovery with treatment for iron deficiency.
A 13-year-old patient returns to the office complaining of intermittent
headache for the past couple of years. Which would be the most
concerning symptom? - ANSStiff neck
Rationale: Inflammation of the membranes (meninges) surrounding the
brain and spinal cord, often caused by a viral or bacterial infection. This can
cause severe headache, stiff neck, fever, and sensitivity to light.
A 14-year-old with sickle cell anemia has recently experienced a sickle cell
crisis and presents for a follow-up examination after a recent
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hospitalization. It is most important to continue monitoring growth,
development, and: - ANShemoglobin levels.
Rationale: Chronic monitoring for patients with sickle cell disease includes
monitoring of hemoglobin and hematocrit.
A 16-year-old female in the first month of taking Ortho-Novum 7/7/7
complains of midcycle spotting. She has not missed any doses and uses
no other medication. Which of the following is appropriate?
*Double dosing for 2 days
*Modifying use
*Changing to Ortho-Novum 1/35
*Providing reassurance - ANSProviding reassurance
Rationale: Ortho-Novum 7/7/7 is a combination oral contraceptive pill that
contains varying doses of estrogen and progestin (norethindrone)
throughout the cycle. It is a triphasic pill, meaning that the hormone levels
change every seven days to mimic the natural menstrual cycle more
closely. Mid-cycle spotting can occur for several reasons while using this
contraceptive.
A 19-year-old patient who has used oral contraceptives for 3 years plans to
discontinue the pill at the end of her current cycle to become pregnant.
Which of the following daily supplements would receive the highest priority?
*Ferrous sulfate
*Folic acid
*Multivitamin
*Calcium carbonate - ANSFolic acid
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Rationale: Folic acid, a B-vitamin (B9), plays a crucial role in ensuring a
healthy pregnancy and reducing the risk of birth defects. Folic acid is
crucial in the early development of the neural tube, which forms the brain
and spinal cord. Adequate folic acid intake can significantly reduce the risk
of neural tube defects such as spina bifida (incomplete closure of the spinal
cord) and anencephaly (underdevelopment of the brain). The neural tube
forms very early in pregnancy, often before a woman knows she is
pregnant. Therefore, it is essential to have adequate folic acid levels before
and during early pregnancy.
A 19-year-old presents with a sore throat and anterior cervical adenopathy.
Which causative agent would be suspected?
*Epstein-Barr virus
*Adenovirus
*Haemophilus influenzae
*Group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus - ANSGroup A beta-hemolytic
Streptococcus
Rationale: While this patient could easily represent strep or EBV, the
differentiating factor is the location of the affected lymphadenopathy. As a
generalization, posterior cervical lymphadenopathy is common of Epstein-
Barr virus (EBV) and anterior cervical lymphadenopathy is more common
with Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus.
A 2-day old newborn has purulent discharge of the eyes and erythema.
History includes a vaginal birth at term delivered at home. What is the most
likely culprit?
*Chlamydia trachomatis infection
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