Pharmacology Practice Quiz Questions
with Complete Answers
A healthcare provider prescribes cephalexin monohydrate Keflex for a client with a
postoperative infection. It is most important for the nurse to assess for what
additional drug allergy before administering this prescription?
A) Penicillins.
B) Aminoglycosides.
C) Erythromycins.
D) Sulfonamides. - ANSWER-Penicillin
Rationale: Cross-allergies exist between penicillins (A) and cephalosporins, such as
cephalexin monohydrate (Keflex), so checking for penicillin allergy is a wise
precaution before administering this drug.
A client is admitted to the coronary care unit with a medical diagnosis of acute
myocardial infarction. Which medication prescription decreases both preload and
afterload?
A) Nitroglycerin.
B) Propranolol (Inderal).
C) Morphine.
D) Captopril (Capoten). - ANSWER-Nitroglycerin
Rationale: Nitroglycerin (A) is a nitrate that causes peripheral vasodilation and
decreases contractility, thereby decreasing both preload and afterload. (B) is a beta
adrenergic blocker that decreases both heart rate and contractility, but only
decreases afterload. Morphine (C) decreases myocardial oxygen consumption and
preload. Capoten (D) is an angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that acts
to prevents vasoconstriction, thereby decreasing blood pressure and afterload.
Which dosing schedule should the nurse teach the client to observe for a controlled-
release oxycodone prescription?
A) As needed.
B) Every 12 hours.
C) Every 24 hours.
D) Every 4 to 6 hours. - ANSWER-Every 12 hours
Rationale: A controlled-release oxycodone provides long-acting analgesia to relieve
moderate to severe pain, so a dosing schedule of every 12 hours (B) provides the
best around-the-clock pain management. Controlled-release oxycodone is not
prescribed for breakthrough pain on a PRN or as needed schedule (A). (C) is
,inadequate for continuous pain management. Using a schedule of every 4 to 6 hours
(D) may jeopardize patient safety due to cumulative effects.
A peak and trough level must be drawn for a client receiving antibiotic therapy. What
is the optimum time for the nurse to obtain the trough level?
A) Sixty minutes after the antibiotic dose is administered. B) Immediately before the
next antibiotic dose is given.
C) When the next blood glucose level is to be checked.
D) Thirty minutes before the next antibiotic dose is given. - ANSWER-Immediately
before the next antibiotic dose is given
Rationale: Trough levels are drawn when the blood level is at its lowest, which is
typically just before the next dose is given (B). (A, C, and D) do not describe the
optimum time for obtaining a trough level of an antibiotic.
After abdominal surgery, a male client is prescribed low molecular weight heparin
LMWH. During administration of the medication, the client asks the nurse why he is
receiving this medication. Which is the best response for the nurse to provide?
A) This medication is a blood thinner given to prevent blood clot formation.
B) This medication enhances antibiotics to prevent infection.
C) This medication dissolves any clots that develop in the legs.
D) This abdominal injection assists in the healing of the abdominal wound. -
ANSWER-This medication is a blood thinner given to prevent blood clot formation
Rationale: Unfractionated heparin or low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is an
anticoagulant that inhibits thrombin-mediated conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin and is
given prophylactically to prevent postoperative venous thrombosis (A) or to treat
pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis following knee and abdominal
surgeries. Heparin does not dissolve clots but prevents clot extension or further clot
formation (C). The anticoagulant heparin does not prevent infection (B) or influence
operative wound healing (D).
A client with Parkinson's disease is taking carbidopa-levodopa (Sinemet). Which
observation by the nurse should indicate that the desired outcome of the medication
is being achieved?
A) Decreased blood pressure.
B) Lessening of tremors.
C) Increased salivation.
D) Increased attention span. - ANSWER-Lessening of tremors
Rationale: Sinemet increases the amount of levodopa to the CNS (dopamine to the
brain). Increased amounts of dopamine improve the symptoms of Parkinson's, such
as involuntary movements, resting tremors (B), shuffling gait, etc. (A) is a side effect
of Sinemet. Decreased drooling would be a desired effect, not (C). Sinemet does not
affect (D).
, A client is receiving metoprolol Lopressor SR. What assessment is most important
for the nurse to obtain?
A) Temperature.
B) Lung sounds.
C) Blood pressure.
D) Urinary output. - ANSWER-Blood pressure
Rationale: It is most important to monitor the blood pressure (C) of clients taking this
medication because Lopressor is an antianginal, antiarrhythmic, antihypertensive
agent. While (A and B) are important data to obtain on any client, they are not as
important for a client receiving Lopressor as (C). Intake and output ratios and daily
weights should be monitored while taking Lopressor to assess for signs and
symptoms of congestive heart failure, but (D) alone does not have the importance of
(C).
The nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing anaphylaxis from an insect sting.
Which prescription should the nurse prepare to administer this client?
A) Dopamine
B) Ephedrine
C) Epinephrine
D) Diphenhydramine. - ANSWER-Epinephrine
Rationale: Epinephrine (C) is an adrenergic agent that stimulate beta receptors to
increase cardiac automaticity in cardiac arrest and relax bronchospasms in
anaphylaxis. Dopamine (A) is a vasopressor used to treat clients with shock.
Ephedrine (B) causes peripheral vasoconstriction and is used in the treatment of
nasal congestion. Diphenhydramine (D) is an antihistamine decongestant used in the
treatment of mild allergic reactions and motion sickness.
A medication that is classified as a beta-1 agonist is most commonly prescribed for a
client with which condition?
A) Glaucoma
B) Hypertension
C) Heart Failure
D) Asthma - ANSWER-Heart failure
Rationale: Beta-1 agonists improve cardiac output by increasing the heart rate and
blood pressure and are indicated in heart failure (C), shock, atrioventricular block
dysrhythmias, and cardiac arrest. Glaucoma (A) is managed using adrenergic agents
and beta-adrenergic blocking agents. Beta-1 blocking agents are used in the
management of hypertension (B). Medications that stimulate beta-2 receptors in the
bronchi are effective for bronchoconstriction in respiratory disorders, such as asthma
(D).
Which nursing intervention is most important when caring for a client receiving the
antimetabolite cytosine arabinoside Arc-C for chemotherapy?
A) Hydrate the client with IV fluids before and after infusion.
with Complete Answers
A healthcare provider prescribes cephalexin monohydrate Keflex for a client with a
postoperative infection. It is most important for the nurse to assess for what
additional drug allergy before administering this prescription?
A) Penicillins.
B) Aminoglycosides.
C) Erythromycins.
D) Sulfonamides. - ANSWER-Penicillin
Rationale: Cross-allergies exist between penicillins (A) and cephalosporins, such as
cephalexin monohydrate (Keflex), so checking for penicillin allergy is a wise
precaution before administering this drug.
A client is admitted to the coronary care unit with a medical diagnosis of acute
myocardial infarction. Which medication prescription decreases both preload and
afterload?
A) Nitroglycerin.
B) Propranolol (Inderal).
C) Morphine.
D) Captopril (Capoten). - ANSWER-Nitroglycerin
Rationale: Nitroglycerin (A) is a nitrate that causes peripheral vasodilation and
decreases contractility, thereby decreasing both preload and afterload. (B) is a beta
adrenergic blocker that decreases both heart rate and contractility, but only
decreases afterload. Morphine (C) decreases myocardial oxygen consumption and
preload. Capoten (D) is an angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that acts
to prevents vasoconstriction, thereby decreasing blood pressure and afterload.
Which dosing schedule should the nurse teach the client to observe for a controlled-
release oxycodone prescription?
A) As needed.
B) Every 12 hours.
C) Every 24 hours.
D) Every 4 to 6 hours. - ANSWER-Every 12 hours
Rationale: A controlled-release oxycodone provides long-acting analgesia to relieve
moderate to severe pain, so a dosing schedule of every 12 hours (B) provides the
best around-the-clock pain management. Controlled-release oxycodone is not
prescribed for breakthrough pain on a PRN or as needed schedule (A). (C) is
,inadequate for continuous pain management. Using a schedule of every 4 to 6 hours
(D) may jeopardize patient safety due to cumulative effects.
A peak and trough level must be drawn for a client receiving antibiotic therapy. What
is the optimum time for the nurse to obtain the trough level?
A) Sixty minutes after the antibiotic dose is administered. B) Immediately before the
next antibiotic dose is given.
C) When the next blood glucose level is to be checked.
D) Thirty minutes before the next antibiotic dose is given. - ANSWER-Immediately
before the next antibiotic dose is given
Rationale: Trough levels are drawn when the blood level is at its lowest, which is
typically just before the next dose is given (B). (A, C, and D) do not describe the
optimum time for obtaining a trough level of an antibiotic.
After abdominal surgery, a male client is prescribed low molecular weight heparin
LMWH. During administration of the medication, the client asks the nurse why he is
receiving this medication. Which is the best response for the nurse to provide?
A) This medication is a blood thinner given to prevent blood clot formation.
B) This medication enhances antibiotics to prevent infection.
C) This medication dissolves any clots that develop in the legs.
D) This abdominal injection assists in the healing of the abdominal wound. -
ANSWER-This medication is a blood thinner given to prevent blood clot formation
Rationale: Unfractionated heparin or low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is an
anticoagulant that inhibits thrombin-mediated conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin and is
given prophylactically to prevent postoperative venous thrombosis (A) or to treat
pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis following knee and abdominal
surgeries. Heparin does not dissolve clots but prevents clot extension or further clot
formation (C). The anticoagulant heparin does not prevent infection (B) or influence
operative wound healing (D).
A client with Parkinson's disease is taking carbidopa-levodopa (Sinemet). Which
observation by the nurse should indicate that the desired outcome of the medication
is being achieved?
A) Decreased blood pressure.
B) Lessening of tremors.
C) Increased salivation.
D) Increased attention span. - ANSWER-Lessening of tremors
Rationale: Sinemet increases the amount of levodopa to the CNS (dopamine to the
brain). Increased amounts of dopamine improve the symptoms of Parkinson's, such
as involuntary movements, resting tremors (B), shuffling gait, etc. (A) is a side effect
of Sinemet. Decreased drooling would be a desired effect, not (C). Sinemet does not
affect (D).
, A client is receiving metoprolol Lopressor SR. What assessment is most important
for the nurse to obtain?
A) Temperature.
B) Lung sounds.
C) Blood pressure.
D) Urinary output. - ANSWER-Blood pressure
Rationale: It is most important to monitor the blood pressure (C) of clients taking this
medication because Lopressor is an antianginal, antiarrhythmic, antihypertensive
agent. While (A and B) are important data to obtain on any client, they are not as
important for a client receiving Lopressor as (C). Intake and output ratios and daily
weights should be monitored while taking Lopressor to assess for signs and
symptoms of congestive heart failure, but (D) alone does not have the importance of
(C).
The nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing anaphylaxis from an insect sting.
Which prescription should the nurse prepare to administer this client?
A) Dopamine
B) Ephedrine
C) Epinephrine
D) Diphenhydramine. - ANSWER-Epinephrine
Rationale: Epinephrine (C) is an adrenergic agent that stimulate beta receptors to
increase cardiac automaticity in cardiac arrest and relax bronchospasms in
anaphylaxis. Dopamine (A) is a vasopressor used to treat clients with shock.
Ephedrine (B) causes peripheral vasoconstriction and is used in the treatment of
nasal congestion. Diphenhydramine (D) is an antihistamine decongestant used in the
treatment of mild allergic reactions and motion sickness.
A medication that is classified as a beta-1 agonist is most commonly prescribed for a
client with which condition?
A) Glaucoma
B) Hypertension
C) Heart Failure
D) Asthma - ANSWER-Heart failure
Rationale: Beta-1 agonists improve cardiac output by increasing the heart rate and
blood pressure and are indicated in heart failure (C), shock, atrioventricular block
dysrhythmias, and cardiac arrest. Glaucoma (A) is managed using adrenergic agents
and beta-adrenergic blocking agents. Beta-1 blocking agents are used in the
management of hypertension (B). Medications that stimulate beta-2 receptors in the
bronchi are effective for bronchoconstriction in respiratory disorders, such as asthma
(D).
Which nursing intervention is most important when caring for a client receiving the
antimetabolite cytosine arabinoside Arc-C for chemotherapy?
A) Hydrate the client with IV fluids before and after infusion.
