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1. Drugs with a narrow therapeutic window have:
a. High risk for toxicity
2. Pharmacokinetics involves the study of
A) physiologic interactions of drugs.
B) distribution rates among various body compartments.
C) interactions between various drugs.
D) adverse reactions to medications.
3. What are the properties of an ideal drug?
a. Effectiveness, safety, and selectivity
4. Blood concentrations of drugs are variable and are influenced by the:
a. Drug metabolism
5. When developing a treatment plan for a 65-year old patient with BPH, who also takes medication
to control HTN, which medication would you plan to include?
a. Tamusolin (Flomax)
B. Tadalafil (Cialis, adcircal)
C. dutasteride (avodart)
D. finasteride (propecia, proscar)
6. The patients asks if there is any other option besides antibiotics to treat acute otitis media.
How will you respond?
a. Pain management is also part of the treatment plan for otitis media 7. A
patient is diagnosed with otitis externa. Comorbidities include DM, HTN, and advanced
MS. Which type of education regarding medication administration would you Provide?
a. The administration of topical medications for a prescription of alcohol plus acetic
acid solution
b. The administration of topical combination medications for a prescription of
fluoroquinolone/glucocorticoid combination solution
c. The oral administration of a prescription for hydrocortisone/neomycin/polymyxin
B combination solution
d. The oral administration of a prescription for fluoroquinolone
,8. Which instructions should be included in the plan of care of a patient who is prescribed ferrous
sulfate?
a. Iron should only be taken at night
b. Iron does not absorb
c. Iron compounds are not taken orally
d. Antacids should not be taken with iron
9. What changes in drug distribution with aging would influence prescribing a medication in
a 90-year-old patient?
Sadie is a 90-year-old patient who requires a new prescription. What changes in drug distribution with
aging would influence prescribing for Sadie? ← similar question on quizlet in case its worded that
way
a. Increased muscle-to-fat ratio
b. Increased volume of distribution
c. Decreased lipid solubility
d. Decreased plasma proteins
10. Gross malformations by teratogens are most likely to occur during which stage of fetal
Development?
a. Weeks 3-8
b. Weeks 24-30
c. Weeks 12-20
d. Week 1-2
11. Which statements about transdermal absorption in infants are correct?
a. Blood flow to the skin is greater in infants than in older patients
b. Infants are at increased risk of toxicity compared with older children
c. The stratum corneum of the infants is very thin, making absorption through the skin more
rapid and complete with infants d. All answers are correct
12. When teaching a pregnant patient about the effects of medication on the fetus, the
greatest harm from maternally ingested medications occurs during which time period? a.
Birthing process
b. Second trimester
c. Third trimester
d. First trimester
13. Which lab result may be a consequence of therapy with a thiazide diuretic?
a. Serum potassium level of 5.3
b. Serum sodium level of 135
, c. Serum glucose level of 58
d. Serum uric acid level of 10.4
14. Which lab test is an indirect measure of atherosclerotic plaque?
a. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
b. LDL
c. Homocysteine
d. CRP
15. What is the MOA of ezetimibe?
a. It inhibits absorption of dietary and biliary cholesterol in the small intestine
b. It decreases the adhesion of cholesterol on the arterial walls
c. It inhibits the absorption of bile, thus causing the liver to produce bile from cholesterol
d. It inhibits the biosynthesis of cholesterol in the liver
16. Which drug is the most effective for lowering LDL cholesterol?
a. Atorvastatin
b. Gemfibrozil
c. Cholestyramine
d. Ezetimbe
17. Nystatin is used for a variety of conditions. Which condition is not treated with Nystatin?
a. Vaginal candidiasis
b. Oral candidiasis
c. Intestinal candidiasis
d. Onychomycosis
18. Isotretinoin (Accutane) is a drug employed in the treatment of severe recalcitrant cystic
acne. Which one of the following is NOT an adverse effect associated with its use? a.
Conjunctivitis
b. Fetal abnormalities
c. Hypertriglyceridemia
d. Hyponatremia
19. Zanamivir is indicted for which of the following?
a. Indicated for both treatment and prophylaxis of influenza
b. Treatment of influenza
c. Treatment of RSV
d. Prophylaxis of influenza
20. What is the treatment option for a patient who reported small, vesicular lesions on his genitals
that lasted between 10 and 20 days?
, a. Acyclovir (Zovirax)
b. One-time dose of azithromycin
c. Test of cure
d. Three injections of penicillin
21. Which microorganism is directly affected by acyclovir?
a. Proteus vulgaris
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Pneumocystis jiroveci
d. Herpes zoster
22. A 24-year-old patient is diagnosed with genital HSV infection. Which of the following agents
is indicated for use in this diagnosis?
a. Zanamivir
b. Cidofovir
c. Maivudine
d. Valacyclovir
23. A patient diagnosed with lymphagitis has an allergy to penicillin, the allergy is a rash.
What would you give the patient?
a. TMP/SMZ
b. Penicillin VK PO
c. Penicillin G IV
d. Clindamycin (In Dr. Hu’s notes)
24. Which of the following statements best explains the observation that morphine is more likely
to cause nausea and vomiting in ambulatory patients?
a. Opioids cause sedation, which makes walking more difficult
b. Morphine inhibits chemoreceptor trigger zones
c. Opioids increase vestibular sensitivity
d. Morphine sensitizes medulla cough center neurons
25. A patient is given Naloxone for Morphine sulfate who has a respiratory rate of 6 bpm.
What is the MOA of Naloxone?
a. Naloxone is a partial agonist, requiring a lesser dose to achieve pain relief
b. Naloxone is an agonist, leading to desensitization of the opioid receptors
c. Naloxone causes hypersensitivity of the opioid receptors
d. Naloxone prevents the activation of opioid receptors
26. Which of the following will you find in a patient taking warfarin and levothyroxine?
a. Cardiac dysrhythmias