Dental Nursing Test Bank Review 2025:
Questions and Answers for Certification
Success
Where is the most common place you would find the bacteria, Legionella, in a dental
practice?
A. Suction hoses
B. Handpieces
C. Water lines
D. Chair upholstery
Rationale: Legionella thrives in stagnant water systems such as dental unit water lines. Other
areas listed are not typical reservoirs for this bacterium.
Which of the following anatomical features might you see on a periapical x-ray?
A. Enamel rods
B. Dentin tubules
C. Lamina dura
D. Gingival sulcus
Rationale: The lamina dura is a radiopaque line around the tooth root visible on periapical
radiographs. The other features are microscopic and cannot be seen radiographically.
How many hours of verifiable CPD must a dental nurse complete over 5 years?
A. 30
B. 40
C. 50
D. 60
Rationale: The GDC requires dental nurses to complete 50 hours of verifiable CPD in a five-
year cycle. The other options are below or above this statutory requirement.
Which medication is most commonly taken regularly by an epileptic patient?
A. Ibuprofen
B. Amoxicillin
C. Phenytoin
D. Warfarin
Rationale: Phenytoin is used to control epilepsy. It may cause gingival hyperplasia, unlike the
other drugs which serve unrelated purposes.
Which bacteria causes dental caries?
A. Lactobacillus acidophilus
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Streptococcus mutans
D. Escherichia coli
,Rationale: Streptococcus mutans initiates enamel demineralization leading to caries. The others
are not primarily associated with tooth decay.
What is the purpose of an intensifying screen in extra-oral radiography?
A. Improve image contrast
B. Reduce radiation dose to patient
C. Shorten exposure time
D. Prevent scatter
Rationale: Intensifying screens emit light to expose the film, thus reducing required radiation.
The other options are secondary or indirect effects.
What is the main purpose of an ultrasonic bath?
A. Sterilization
B. Debris removal
C. Drying
D. Disinfection
Rationale: Ultrasonic baths remove debris via cavitation. They do not sterilize or disinfect
instruments.
CIPTN stands for:
A. Clinical Index of Periodontal Tissue Needs
B. Common Indicator for Periodontal Therapy Needs
C. Community Periodontal Index of Treatment Needs
D. Calculus Index for Periodontal Needs
Rationale: CIPTN is a WHO-recognized tool for assessing periodontal status and treatment
needs.
A BPE score of 3 corresponds to a pocket depth of:
A. 0–3 mm
B. 3.5–5.5 mm
C. 6–8 mm
D. >8 mm
Rationale: A score of 3 indicates moderate periodontal pocketing of 3.5–5.5 mm.
What is a cyst?
A. A solid mass of tissue
B. A bacterial colony
C. An abnormal sac of fluid
D. A benign tumor
Rationale: A cyst is an epithelium-lined sac filled with fluid. The others describe different
pathologies.
How long should hand hygiene be performed after removing PPE?
A. 10–20 seconds
B. 20–30 seconds
C. 40–60 seconds
, D. 90 seconds
Rationale: WHO guidelines specify 40–60 seconds for thorough decontamination.
If an x-ray image appears elongated, what happened?
A. Underexposure
B. Film placed incorrectly
C. Tubehead at wrong angle
D. Excessive exposure time
Rationale: Incorrect vertical angulation causes elongation. Overexposure or misplacement cause
different artifacts.
How many roots does a lower second premolar have?
A. Two
B. One
C. Three
D. Variable
Rationale: Lower premolars typically have a single root, unlike some upper premolars with two.
What symptom indicates angina attack?
A. Nausea
B. Mild to moderate chest pain
C. Confusion
D. Syncope
Rationale: Angina typically presents as chest pain due to myocardial ischemia. Other symptoms
may accompany but are not diagnostic.
Why might an x-ray film appear completely blank after processing?
A. Overdeveloped
B. Underdeveloped
C. Placed in fixer before developer
D. Exposed to light
Rationale: Fixer removes undeveloped silver halide crystals, erasing the image if used first.
What is the Hall Technique?
A. Temporary filling method
B. Removal of decay and filling
C. Placement of preformed metal crown with cement sealing caries
D. Tooth extraction procedure
Rationale: The Hall Technique seals caries under stainless steel crowns without drilling or local
anesthesia.
What is the most likely feature of a Class III malocclusion?
A. Deep overbite
B. Reverse overjet
C. Crossbite
Questions and Answers for Certification
Success
Where is the most common place you would find the bacteria, Legionella, in a dental
practice?
A. Suction hoses
B. Handpieces
C. Water lines
D. Chair upholstery
Rationale: Legionella thrives in stagnant water systems such as dental unit water lines. Other
areas listed are not typical reservoirs for this bacterium.
Which of the following anatomical features might you see on a periapical x-ray?
A. Enamel rods
B. Dentin tubules
C. Lamina dura
D. Gingival sulcus
Rationale: The lamina dura is a radiopaque line around the tooth root visible on periapical
radiographs. The other features are microscopic and cannot be seen radiographically.
How many hours of verifiable CPD must a dental nurse complete over 5 years?
A. 30
B. 40
C. 50
D. 60
Rationale: The GDC requires dental nurses to complete 50 hours of verifiable CPD in a five-
year cycle. The other options are below or above this statutory requirement.
Which medication is most commonly taken regularly by an epileptic patient?
A. Ibuprofen
B. Amoxicillin
C. Phenytoin
D. Warfarin
Rationale: Phenytoin is used to control epilepsy. It may cause gingival hyperplasia, unlike the
other drugs which serve unrelated purposes.
Which bacteria causes dental caries?
A. Lactobacillus acidophilus
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Streptococcus mutans
D. Escherichia coli
,Rationale: Streptococcus mutans initiates enamel demineralization leading to caries. The others
are not primarily associated with tooth decay.
What is the purpose of an intensifying screen in extra-oral radiography?
A. Improve image contrast
B. Reduce radiation dose to patient
C. Shorten exposure time
D. Prevent scatter
Rationale: Intensifying screens emit light to expose the film, thus reducing required radiation.
The other options are secondary or indirect effects.
What is the main purpose of an ultrasonic bath?
A. Sterilization
B. Debris removal
C. Drying
D. Disinfection
Rationale: Ultrasonic baths remove debris via cavitation. They do not sterilize or disinfect
instruments.
CIPTN stands for:
A. Clinical Index of Periodontal Tissue Needs
B. Common Indicator for Periodontal Therapy Needs
C. Community Periodontal Index of Treatment Needs
D. Calculus Index for Periodontal Needs
Rationale: CIPTN is a WHO-recognized tool for assessing periodontal status and treatment
needs.
A BPE score of 3 corresponds to a pocket depth of:
A. 0–3 mm
B. 3.5–5.5 mm
C. 6–8 mm
D. >8 mm
Rationale: A score of 3 indicates moderate periodontal pocketing of 3.5–5.5 mm.
What is a cyst?
A. A solid mass of tissue
B. A bacterial colony
C. An abnormal sac of fluid
D. A benign tumor
Rationale: A cyst is an epithelium-lined sac filled with fluid. The others describe different
pathologies.
How long should hand hygiene be performed after removing PPE?
A. 10–20 seconds
B. 20–30 seconds
C. 40–60 seconds
, D. 90 seconds
Rationale: WHO guidelines specify 40–60 seconds for thorough decontamination.
If an x-ray image appears elongated, what happened?
A. Underexposure
B. Film placed incorrectly
C. Tubehead at wrong angle
D. Excessive exposure time
Rationale: Incorrect vertical angulation causes elongation. Overexposure or misplacement cause
different artifacts.
How many roots does a lower second premolar have?
A. Two
B. One
C. Three
D. Variable
Rationale: Lower premolars typically have a single root, unlike some upper premolars with two.
What symptom indicates angina attack?
A. Nausea
B. Mild to moderate chest pain
C. Confusion
D. Syncope
Rationale: Angina typically presents as chest pain due to myocardial ischemia. Other symptoms
may accompany but are not diagnostic.
Why might an x-ray film appear completely blank after processing?
A. Overdeveloped
B. Underdeveloped
C. Placed in fixer before developer
D. Exposed to light
Rationale: Fixer removes undeveloped silver halide crystals, erasing the image if used first.
What is the Hall Technique?
A. Temporary filling method
B. Removal of decay and filling
C. Placement of preformed metal crown with cement sealing caries
D. Tooth extraction procedure
Rationale: The Hall Technique seals caries under stainless steel crowns without drilling or local
anesthesia.
What is the most likely feature of a Class III malocclusion?
A. Deep overbite
B. Reverse overjet
C. Crossbite
