NR 546 week 7 (Latest Update 2025 /
2026) Advanced Pharmacology:
Psychopharmacology for the Psychiatric-
Mental Health Nurse Practitioner
Questions & Answers100% Correct
[Grade A] – Chamberlain
A 32-year-old elementary teacher requests a workup for infertility. He and his wife have
been trying to conceive for the last 2 years. He reports that his wife has been evaluated
and does not appear to have any infertility issues. The overall examination does not
reveal any significant abnormalities. He is of average height and weight and has normal
secondary sex characteristics of the genitalia. Of the following, which would be most
likely be abnormal and causing male infertility -correct answer follicle stimulating
hormone (FSH)
While performing a physical examination on male patients, it is possible to palpate
multiple structures in relation to the inguinal canal and related hernias. Which of the
following is not palpable during an external examination of the abdominal wall or
inguinal region -correct answer Internal inguinal ring
A 20-year-old college student presents for his annual physical examination. He recently
became sexually active and is inquiring about the best means of preventing sexually
transmitted infections (STIs).Of the following, which would be the most effective means
of prevention? -correct answer male condoms
A 21-year-old college student presents to the student health clinic for a full physical
examination. Heis generally healthy; however, he reports that he has had sexual
intercourse with multiple partners inthe past couple of months. He noticed a small lesion
on the shaft of his penis a few days ago. While performing the examination, he unwillingly
achieves an erection. How should the clinician proceed at this point -correct answer
explain this is normal and finish the exam
, NR 546 week 7 (Latest Update 2025 /
2026) Advanced Pharmacology:
Psychopharmacology for the Psychiatric-
Mental Health Nurse Practitioner
Questions & Answers100% Correct
[Grade A] – Chamberlain
A 45-year-old driver's education instructor presents to the clinic for heavy periods and
pelvic painduring her menses. She reached menarche at age 13 years and has had
regular periods except duringher pregnancies. She is a G4P3013 and does not use birth
control as her husband has had a vasectomy.She states this has been going on for about
a year but seems to be getting worse. Her last period was 1week ago. On bimanual exam,
a large midline mass halfway to the umbilicus is palpated. Each adnexalarea is
nonpalpable. Her rectal exam is normal. Her body mass index (BMI) is 27. What is the
bestexplanation for her physical finding -correct answer fibroids
2. A 32-year-old G0 woman comes for evaluation on why she and her husband have
been unable to getpregnant. Her husband has been married before and has two other
children, ages 7 and 4 years. Thepatient relates she began her periods at age 12 and has
been fairly regular ever since. She began oralcontraceptive pills from when she got
married until last year, when she began to try for a pregnancy.Before this she had
regular cycles for 10 years. She has had a history of five prior partners. She relatesshe
was once treated for a severe genital infection when she was in college. Based on this
patient's history, what is the best explanation for her infertility? -correct answer prior
PID
A 24-year-old retail clerk presents to the clinic for an annual exam. Her last Pap was 3
years ago andwas normal. She is a G0 and is currently not sexually active although she
has had two lifetime partners.She is on oral contraceptive pills for cycle control and has
no medical problems. Based on guidelines, theclinician proceeds to perform a Pap
smear and places the speculum. There are two layers of cells,squamous and columnar.
Where is the most important area to obtain cells for a Pap smear? -correct answer
transformation zone
, NR 546 week 7 (Latest Update 2025 /
2026) Advanced Pharmacology:
Psychopharmacology for the Psychiatric-
Mental Health Nurse Practitioner
Questions & Answers100% Correct
[Grade A] – Chamberlain
A 35-year-old grade school teacher presents for her annual exam. Her last Pap smear
was 4 years ago and normal. She is a G1P1 with a 6-year-old child. She has had four
lifetime partners but only one partner in the last 12 years. Otherwise she has no
complaints. A speculum exam is done followed by a bimanual examination during which
a rectovaginal mass is palpated. Which of the following exam findings would be most
reassuring that this is not a colonic mass? -correct answer the mass dents with digital
pressure
A 21-year-old college student presents for her first annual exam. She has been sexually
active for 1year and has had two partners. She is not aware of having had any sexually
transmitted diseases (STIs).She is using condoms for birth control and STI prevention
but admits to not always using them regularly.Her last menses was 2 weeks ago. On
speculum exam, an unusual appearance is noted, which is diagnosed as warts. What is
the best description for these lesions -correct answer raised friable or lobed lesions
A 23-year-old female comes to the clinic to discuss her birth control options. Although
she has beensexually active since age 16 years, she has been with one partner for the
last year. She has decided todiscontinue condoms and would like a different birth control
option. She has not had a pelvic exam for 2years. She had a normal Pap smear that year
and negative sexually transmitted infection (STI) testing.Her last menstrual period was
2 days ago. She states that she is still spotting. She also states that she last had sex
with her boyfriend 1 week ago, so the clinician elects to postpone her speculum exam.
What is the best explanation for the decision to postpone her exam -correct answer she
is on her menses
An 18-year-old high school senior presents to the clinic complaining of a vaginal
discharge. She statesthat it is thick and yellow and that she has had some recent pelvic
2026) Advanced Pharmacology:
Psychopharmacology for the Psychiatric-
Mental Health Nurse Practitioner
Questions & Answers100% Correct
[Grade A] – Chamberlain
A 32-year-old elementary teacher requests a workup for infertility. He and his wife have
been trying to conceive for the last 2 years. He reports that his wife has been evaluated
and does not appear to have any infertility issues. The overall examination does not
reveal any significant abnormalities. He is of average height and weight and has normal
secondary sex characteristics of the genitalia. Of the following, which would be most
likely be abnormal and causing male infertility -correct answer follicle stimulating
hormone (FSH)
While performing a physical examination on male patients, it is possible to palpate
multiple structures in relation to the inguinal canal and related hernias. Which of the
following is not palpable during an external examination of the abdominal wall or
inguinal region -correct answer Internal inguinal ring
A 20-year-old college student presents for his annual physical examination. He recently
became sexually active and is inquiring about the best means of preventing sexually
transmitted infections (STIs).Of the following, which would be the most effective means
of prevention? -correct answer male condoms
A 21-year-old college student presents to the student health clinic for a full physical
examination. Heis generally healthy; however, he reports that he has had sexual
intercourse with multiple partners inthe past couple of months. He noticed a small lesion
on the shaft of his penis a few days ago. While performing the examination, he unwillingly
achieves an erection. How should the clinician proceed at this point -correct answer
explain this is normal and finish the exam
, NR 546 week 7 (Latest Update 2025 /
2026) Advanced Pharmacology:
Psychopharmacology for the Psychiatric-
Mental Health Nurse Practitioner
Questions & Answers100% Correct
[Grade A] – Chamberlain
A 45-year-old driver's education instructor presents to the clinic for heavy periods and
pelvic painduring her menses. She reached menarche at age 13 years and has had
regular periods except duringher pregnancies. She is a G4P3013 and does not use birth
control as her husband has had a vasectomy.She states this has been going on for about
a year but seems to be getting worse. Her last period was 1week ago. On bimanual exam,
a large midline mass halfway to the umbilicus is palpated. Each adnexalarea is
nonpalpable. Her rectal exam is normal. Her body mass index (BMI) is 27. What is the
bestexplanation for her physical finding -correct answer fibroids
2. A 32-year-old G0 woman comes for evaluation on why she and her husband have
been unable to getpregnant. Her husband has been married before and has two other
children, ages 7 and 4 years. Thepatient relates she began her periods at age 12 and has
been fairly regular ever since. She began oralcontraceptive pills from when she got
married until last year, when she began to try for a pregnancy.Before this she had
regular cycles for 10 years. She has had a history of five prior partners. She relatesshe
was once treated for a severe genital infection when she was in college. Based on this
patient's history, what is the best explanation for her infertility? -correct answer prior
PID
A 24-year-old retail clerk presents to the clinic for an annual exam. Her last Pap was 3
years ago andwas normal. She is a G0 and is currently not sexually active although she
has had two lifetime partners.She is on oral contraceptive pills for cycle control and has
no medical problems. Based on guidelines, theclinician proceeds to perform a Pap
smear and places the speculum. There are two layers of cells,squamous and columnar.
Where is the most important area to obtain cells for a Pap smear? -correct answer
transformation zone
, NR 546 week 7 (Latest Update 2025 /
2026) Advanced Pharmacology:
Psychopharmacology for the Psychiatric-
Mental Health Nurse Practitioner
Questions & Answers100% Correct
[Grade A] – Chamberlain
A 35-year-old grade school teacher presents for her annual exam. Her last Pap smear
was 4 years ago and normal. She is a G1P1 with a 6-year-old child. She has had four
lifetime partners but only one partner in the last 12 years. Otherwise she has no
complaints. A speculum exam is done followed by a bimanual examination during which
a rectovaginal mass is palpated. Which of the following exam findings would be most
reassuring that this is not a colonic mass? -correct answer the mass dents with digital
pressure
A 21-year-old college student presents for her first annual exam. She has been sexually
active for 1year and has had two partners. She is not aware of having had any sexually
transmitted diseases (STIs).She is using condoms for birth control and STI prevention
but admits to not always using them regularly.Her last menses was 2 weeks ago. On
speculum exam, an unusual appearance is noted, which is diagnosed as warts. What is
the best description for these lesions -correct answer raised friable or lobed lesions
A 23-year-old female comes to the clinic to discuss her birth control options. Although
she has beensexually active since age 16 years, she has been with one partner for the
last year. She has decided todiscontinue condoms and would like a different birth control
option. She has not had a pelvic exam for 2years. She had a normal Pap smear that year
and negative sexually transmitted infection (STI) testing.Her last menstrual period was
2 days ago. She states that she is still spotting. She also states that she last had sex
with her boyfriend 1 week ago, so the clinician elects to postpone her speculum exam.
What is the best explanation for the decision to postpone her exam -correct answer she
is on her menses
An 18-year-old high school senior presents to the clinic complaining of a vaginal
discharge. She statesthat it is thick and yellow and that she has had some recent pelvic
