ATI RN Maternal Newborn
Proctored Exam – 2025
Questions & Verified Answers
1. Prenatal Care: A nurse is caring for a client at 32 weeks gestation
experiencing preterm labor. Which medication should the nurse plan to
administer?
A) Misoprostol B) Betamethasone C) Poractant alfa D) Methylergonovine B)
Betamethasone Rationale: Betamethasone, a corticosteroid, is administered to
accelerate fetal lung maturity in preterm labor between 24–34 weeks, reducing
respiratory distress syndrome risk per ACOG guidelines.
2. Prenatal Care: A client suspects pregnancy and asks how the provider will
confirm it. Which lab test should the nurse describe?
A) Urine test for HCS B) Blood test for estrogen C) Urine test for HCG D) Blood
test for progesterone C) Urine test for HCG Rationale: Human chorionic
gonadotropin (HCG) is detected in urine or blood as early as 1 week post-
conception, confirming pregnancy via immunoassay.
3. Prenatal Care: Which finding indicates a positive sign of pregnancy?
A) Amenorrhea B) Chadwick's sign C) Positive pregnancy test D) Palpable fetal
movement D) Palpable fetal movement Rationale: Positive signs (fetal movement,
heartbeat, ultrasound) objectively confirm pregnancy; presumptive/subjective
signs like amenorrhea are client-reported.
4. Complications: A client at 37 weeks with oligohydramnios is at risk for
which fetal anomaly?
A) Atrial septal defect B) Renal agenesis C) Spina bifida D) Hydrocephalus B)
Renal agenesis Rationale: Oligohydramnios results from reduced fetal urine
output, often due to renal agenesis, leading to Potter sequence; amniotic fluid is
80% fetal urine after 20 weeks.
, 5. Complications: A client at 37 weeks with blunt abdominal trauma and
suspected pelvic fracture shows which expected finding?
A) Bradycardia B) Uterine contractions C) Seizures D) Bradypnea B) Uterine
contractions Rationale: Trauma can cause placental abruption, triggering uterine
irritability and contractions; monitor for fetal distress and maternal hemorrhage.
6. Complications: A client at 12 weeks with hydatidiform mole exhibits which
finding?
A) Fetal heart tones B) Dark brown vaginal discharge C) Hypothermia D)
Decreased urinary output B) Dark brown vaginal discharge Rationale: Molar
pregnancy causes grape-like vesicles that slough, leading to dark brown "prune
juice" discharge; no fetus, so no heart tones; evacuate uterus promptly to prevent
choriocarcinoma.
7. Complications: A client at 35 weeks with mild gestational hypertension has
which priority finding?
A) BP 144/92 mmHg B) 1+ proteinuria C) +2 pedal edema D) 480 mL/24-hr urine
output D) 480 mL/24-hr urine output Rationale: Oliguria (<30 mL/hr or <720
mL/24 hr) signals severe preeclampsia with renal involvement; prioritize
magnesium sulfate and delivery per 2025 ACOG updates.
8. Infectious Diseases: A client at 12 weeks with HIV should continue which
medication?
A) Abstain from intercourse B) Zidovudine throughout pregnancy C) Breastfeed
for immunity D) Isolate post-delivery B) Zidovudine throughout pregnancy
Rationale: Antiretroviral therapy (ART) like zidovudine reduces vertical
transmission to <2%; breastfeeding is contraindicated in HIV+ mothers in the US
due to risk.
9. Prenatal Care: Which manifestation should a client at 8 weeks report
promptly?
A) Nausea on awakening B) Blurred or double vision C) Increased white discharge
D) Leg cramps at night B) Blurred or double vision Rationale: Visual changes
suggest preeclampsia or gestational diabetes complications; report immediately
for fundoscopic exam and glucose testing.
Proctored Exam – 2025
Questions & Verified Answers
1. Prenatal Care: A nurse is caring for a client at 32 weeks gestation
experiencing preterm labor. Which medication should the nurse plan to
administer?
A) Misoprostol B) Betamethasone C) Poractant alfa D) Methylergonovine B)
Betamethasone Rationale: Betamethasone, a corticosteroid, is administered to
accelerate fetal lung maturity in preterm labor between 24–34 weeks, reducing
respiratory distress syndrome risk per ACOG guidelines.
2. Prenatal Care: A client suspects pregnancy and asks how the provider will
confirm it. Which lab test should the nurse describe?
A) Urine test for HCS B) Blood test for estrogen C) Urine test for HCG D) Blood
test for progesterone C) Urine test for HCG Rationale: Human chorionic
gonadotropin (HCG) is detected in urine or blood as early as 1 week post-
conception, confirming pregnancy via immunoassay.
3. Prenatal Care: Which finding indicates a positive sign of pregnancy?
A) Amenorrhea B) Chadwick's sign C) Positive pregnancy test D) Palpable fetal
movement D) Palpable fetal movement Rationale: Positive signs (fetal movement,
heartbeat, ultrasound) objectively confirm pregnancy; presumptive/subjective
signs like amenorrhea are client-reported.
4. Complications: A client at 37 weeks with oligohydramnios is at risk for
which fetal anomaly?
A) Atrial septal defect B) Renal agenesis C) Spina bifida D) Hydrocephalus B)
Renal agenesis Rationale: Oligohydramnios results from reduced fetal urine
output, often due to renal agenesis, leading to Potter sequence; amniotic fluid is
80% fetal urine after 20 weeks.
, 5. Complications: A client at 37 weeks with blunt abdominal trauma and
suspected pelvic fracture shows which expected finding?
A) Bradycardia B) Uterine contractions C) Seizures D) Bradypnea B) Uterine
contractions Rationale: Trauma can cause placental abruption, triggering uterine
irritability and contractions; monitor for fetal distress and maternal hemorrhage.
6. Complications: A client at 12 weeks with hydatidiform mole exhibits which
finding?
A) Fetal heart tones B) Dark brown vaginal discharge C) Hypothermia D)
Decreased urinary output B) Dark brown vaginal discharge Rationale: Molar
pregnancy causes grape-like vesicles that slough, leading to dark brown "prune
juice" discharge; no fetus, so no heart tones; evacuate uterus promptly to prevent
choriocarcinoma.
7. Complications: A client at 35 weeks with mild gestational hypertension has
which priority finding?
A) BP 144/92 mmHg B) 1+ proteinuria C) +2 pedal edema D) 480 mL/24-hr urine
output D) 480 mL/24-hr urine output Rationale: Oliguria (<30 mL/hr or <720
mL/24 hr) signals severe preeclampsia with renal involvement; prioritize
magnesium sulfate and delivery per 2025 ACOG updates.
8. Infectious Diseases: A client at 12 weeks with HIV should continue which
medication?
A) Abstain from intercourse B) Zidovudine throughout pregnancy C) Breastfeed
for immunity D) Isolate post-delivery B) Zidovudine throughout pregnancy
Rationale: Antiretroviral therapy (ART) like zidovudine reduces vertical
transmission to <2%; breastfeeding is contraindicated in HIV+ mothers in the US
due to risk.
9. Prenatal Care: Which manifestation should a client at 8 weeks report
promptly?
A) Nausea on awakening B) Blurred or double vision C) Increased white discharge
D) Leg cramps at night B) Blurred or double vision Rationale: Visual changes
suggest preeclampsia or gestational diabetes complications; report immediately
for fundoscopic exam and glucose testing.
