PHARMACOLOGY HESI EXAM
PHARMACOLOGY HESI EXAM 2025/2026 COMPLETE VERIFIED
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED
RATIONALES |ALREADY GRADED A+||LATEST
A female client with rheumatoid arthritis take ibuprofen (Motrin) 600 mg PO 4
times a day. To prevent gastrointestinal bleeding, misoprostol (Cytotec) 100 mcg
PO is prescribed. Which information is most important for the nurse to include in
client teaching?
A) Use contraception during intercourse.
B) Ensure the Cytotec is taken on an empty stomach.
C) Encourage oral fluid intake to prevent constipation.
D) Take Cytotec 30 minutes prior to Motrin. - Correct Answer-A
Cytotec, a synthetic form of a prostaglandin, is classified as pregnancy Category
X and can act as an abortifacient, so the client should be instructed to use
contraception during intercourse (A) to prevent loss of an early pregnancy. (B) is
not necessary. A common side effect of Cytotec is diarrhea, so constipation
prevention strategies are usually not needed (C). Cytotec and Motrin should be
taken together (D) to provide protective properties against gastrointestinal
bleeding.
A client asks the nurse if glipizide (Glucotrol) is an oral insulin. Which response
should the nurse provide?
A) "Yes, it is an oral insulin and has the same actions and properties as
intermediate insulin."
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, PHARMACOLOGY HESI EXAM
B) "Yes, it is an oral insulin and is distributed, metabolized, and excreted in the
same manner as insulin."
C) "No, it is not an oral insulin and can be used only when some beta cell function
is present."
D) "No, it is not an oral insulin, but it is effective for those who are resistant to
injectable insulins." - Correct Answer-C
An effective oral form of insulin has not yet been developed (C) because when
insulin is taken orally, it is destroyed by digestive enzymes. Glipizide (Glucotrol)
is an oral hypoglycemic agent that enhances pancreatic production of insulin. (A,
B, and D) do not provide accurate information.
Upon admission to the emergency center, an adult client with acute status
asthmaticus is prescribed this series of medications. In which order should the
nurse administer the prescribed medications? (Arrange from first to last.)
A) Prednisone (Deltasone) orally.
B) Gentamicin (Garamycin) IM.
C) Albuterol (Proventil) puffs.
D) Salmeterol (Serevent Diskus). - Correct Answer-C, D, A, B
Status asthmaticus is potentially a life-threatening respiratory event, so
albuterol (C), a beta2 adrenergic agonist and bronchodilator, should be
administered by inhalation first to provide rapid and deep topical penetration to
relieve bronchospasms, dilate the bronchioles, and increase oxygenation. In
stepwise management of persistent asthma, a long-action bronchodilator, such
as salmeterol (Serevent Diskus) (D) with a 12-hour duration of action should be
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, PHARMACOLOGY HESI EXAM
given next. Prednisone (A), an oral corticosteroid, provides prolonged anti-
inflammatory effects and should be given after the client's respiratory distress
begins to resolves. Gentamicin (B), an antibiotic, is given deep IM, which can be
painful, and may require repositioning the client, so should be last in the
sequence.
Which dosing schedule should the nurse teach the client to observe for a
controlled-release oxycodone prescription?
A) As needed.
B) Every 12 hours.
C) Every 24 hours.
D) Every 4 to 6 hours. - Correct Answer-B
A controlled-release oxycodone provides long-acting analgesia to relieve
moderate to severe pain, so a dosing schedule of every 12 hours (B) provides the
best around-the-clock pain management. Controlled-release oxycodone is not
prescribed for breakthrough pain on a PRN or as needed schedule (A). (C) is
inadequate for continuous pain management. Using a schedule of every 4 to 6
hours (D) may jeopardize patient safety due to cumulative effects.
Which nursing diagnosis is important to include in the plan of care for a client
receiving the angiotensin-2 receptor antagonist irbesartan (Avapro)?
A) Fluid volume deficit.
B) Risk for infection.
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, PHARMACOLOGY HESI EXAM
C) Risk for injury.
D) Impaired sleep patterns. - Correct Answer-C
Avapro is an antihypertensive agent, which acts by blocking vasoconstrictor
effects at various receptor sites. This can cause hypotension and dizziness,
placing the client at high risk for injury (C). Avapro does not act as a diuretic (A),
impact the immune system (B), or alter sleep patterns (D).
Which client should the nurse identify as being at highest risk for complications
during the use of an opioid analgesic?
A) An older client with Type 2 diabetes mellitus.
B) A client with chronic rheumatoid arthritis.
C) A client with a open compound fracture.
D) A young adult with inflammatory bowel disease. - Correct Answer-D
The principal indication for opioid use is acute pain, and a client with
inflammatory bowel disease (D) is at risk for toxic megacolon or paralytic ileus
related to slowed peristalsis, a side effect of morphine. Adverse effects of
morphine do not pose as great a risk for (A, B, and C) as the client with bowel
disease.
An adult client is given a prescription for a scopolamine patch (Transderm Scop) to
prevent motion sickness while on a cruise. Which information should the nurse
provide to the client?
4|Page
PHARMACOLOGY HESI EXAM 2025/2026 COMPLETE VERIFIED
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED
RATIONALES |ALREADY GRADED A+||LATEST
A female client with rheumatoid arthritis take ibuprofen (Motrin) 600 mg PO 4
times a day. To prevent gastrointestinal bleeding, misoprostol (Cytotec) 100 mcg
PO is prescribed. Which information is most important for the nurse to include in
client teaching?
A) Use contraception during intercourse.
B) Ensure the Cytotec is taken on an empty stomach.
C) Encourage oral fluid intake to prevent constipation.
D) Take Cytotec 30 minutes prior to Motrin. - Correct Answer-A
Cytotec, a synthetic form of a prostaglandin, is classified as pregnancy Category
X and can act as an abortifacient, so the client should be instructed to use
contraception during intercourse (A) to prevent loss of an early pregnancy. (B) is
not necessary. A common side effect of Cytotec is diarrhea, so constipation
prevention strategies are usually not needed (C). Cytotec and Motrin should be
taken together (D) to provide protective properties against gastrointestinal
bleeding.
A client asks the nurse if glipizide (Glucotrol) is an oral insulin. Which response
should the nurse provide?
A) "Yes, it is an oral insulin and has the same actions and properties as
intermediate insulin."
1|Page
, PHARMACOLOGY HESI EXAM
B) "Yes, it is an oral insulin and is distributed, metabolized, and excreted in the
same manner as insulin."
C) "No, it is not an oral insulin and can be used only when some beta cell function
is present."
D) "No, it is not an oral insulin, but it is effective for those who are resistant to
injectable insulins." - Correct Answer-C
An effective oral form of insulin has not yet been developed (C) because when
insulin is taken orally, it is destroyed by digestive enzymes. Glipizide (Glucotrol)
is an oral hypoglycemic agent that enhances pancreatic production of insulin. (A,
B, and D) do not provide accurate information.
Upon admission to the emergency center, an adult client with acute status
asthmaticus is prescribed this series of medications. In which order should the
nurse administer the prescribed medications? (Arrange from first to last.)
A) Prednisone (Deltasone) orally.
B) Gentamicin (Garamycin) IM.
C) Albuterol (Proventil) puffs.
D) Salmeterol (Serevent Diskus). - Correct Answer-C, D, A, B
Status asthmaticus is potentially a life-threatening respiratory event, so
albuterol (C), a beta2 adrenergic agonist and bronchodilator, should be
administered by inhalation first to provide rapid and deep topical penetration to
relieve bronchospasms, dilate the bronchioles, and increase oxygenation. In
stepwise management of persistent asthma, a long-action bronchodilator, such
as salmeterol (Serevent Diskus) (D) with a 12-hour duration of action should be
2|Page
, PHARMACOLOGY HESI EXAM
given next. Prednisone (A), an oral corticosteroid, provides prolonged anti-
inflammatory effects and should be given after the client's respiratory distress
begins to resolves. Gentamicin (B), an antibiotic, is given deep IM, which can be
painful, and may require repositioning the client, so should be last in the
sequence.
Which dosing schedule should the nurse teach the client to observe for a
controlled-release oxycodone prescription?
A) As needed.
B) Every 12 hours.
C) Every 24 hours.
D) Every 4 to 6 hours. - Correct Answer-B
A controlled-release oxycodone provides long-acting analgesia to relieve
moderate to severe pain, so a dosing schedule of every 12 hours (B) provides the
best around-the-clock pain management. Controlled-release oxycodone is not
prescribed for breakthrough pain on a PRN or as needed schedule (A). (C) is
inadequate for continuous pain management. Using a schedule of every 4 to 6
hours (D) may jeopardize patient safety due to cumulative effects.
Which nursing diagnosis is important to include in the plan of care for a client
receiving the angiotensin-2 receptor antagonist irbesartan (Avapro)?
A) Fluid volume deficit.
B) Risk for infection.
3|Page
, PHARMACOLOGY HESI EXAM
C) Risk for injury.
D) Impaired sleep patterns. - Correct Answer-C
Avapro is an antihypertensive agent, which acts by blocking vasoconstrictor
effects at various receptor sites. This can cause hypotension and dizziness,
placing the client at high risk for injury (C). Avapro does not act as a diuretic (A),
impact the immune system (B), or alter sleep patterns (D).
Which client should the nurse identify as being at highest risk for complications
during the use of an opioid analgesic?
A) An older client with Type 2 diabetes mellitus.
B) A client with chronic rheumatoid arthritis.
C) A client with a open compound fracture.
D) A young adult with inflammatory bowel disease. - Correct Answer-D
The principal indication for opioid use is acute pain, and a client with
inflammatory bowel disease (D) is at risk for toxic megacolon or paralytic ileus
related to slowed peristalsis, a side effect of morphine. Adverse effects of
morphine do not pose as great a risk for (A, B, and C) as the client with bowel
disease.
An adult client is given a prescription for a scopolamine patch (Transderm Scop) to
prevent motion sickness while on a cruise. Which information should the nurse
provide to the client?
4|Page
