NR511 WEEK 7 EXAM (2025/2026) UPDATED: EXAM QUESTIONS WITH ACCURATE ANSWERS | A GRADED

NR511 WEEK 7 EXAM (2025/2026) UPDATED: EXAM QUESTIONS WITH ACCURATE ANSWERS | A GRADED A patient's chief complaint is heaviness in the scrotum. The nurse practitioner notes swelling of the testes, along with warm scrotal skin. Which of the following diagnoses is most probable? Cryptorchidism Orchitis Testicular torsion epididymitis Correct Answer Orchitis John asks for a prescription for sildenafil (Viagra). He says that the only medication he takes is isosorbide mononitrate (Monoket) oral tablets and that he has diabetes that he controls with diet alone. What should the nurse practitioner tell him? "Let's try a sample and see how you do." "Viagra is contraindicated with isosorbide mononitrate; let's discuss other options." "Because of your history of diabetes, we can't use it." "I'd better refer you to a urologist." Correct Answer "Viagra is contraindicated with isosorbide mononitrate; let's discuss other options." Regular testicular self-exams have not been studied enough to show if they lower the risk of dying from testicular cancer. This is why the American Cancer Society and other agencies do not have a recommendation about regular testicular self-exams for all men. Still, some practitioners do recommend that all men examine their testicles monthly after reaching puberty. If you are teaching a patient how to do a testicular self-examination, which of the following do you tell him? "Examine your testicles when you are cold because this makes them more sensitive." "Make sure your hands are dry to create friction." "If you feel firmness above and behind the testicle, make an appointment." "Make an appointment if you note any hard lumps directly on the testicle, regardless of whether they are tender." Correct Answer "Make an appointment if you note any hard lumps directly on the testicle, regardless of whether they are tender." Max, age 70, is obese. He is complaining of a bulge in his groin that has been there for months. He states that it is not painful, but it is annoying. The practitioner notes that the origin of the swelling is above the inguinal ligament and directly behind and through the external ring. This finding is most indicative of a(n): Indirect inguinal hernia. Direct inguinal hernia. Femoral hernia. Strangulated hernia. Correct Answer Direct inguinal hernia Reiter syndrome is a complication of: Bacterial vaginosis. Syphilis. Chlamydia. Gonorrhea. Correct Answer Chlamydia Josh and Martha have 5 children and do not want any more. Josh said he heard about a no-scalpel vasectomy (NSV) and asks the nurse practitioner how it works. What would be the best response? "For the vasectomy to be permanent, you must have the vas deferens excised." "It's safer for Martha to be sterilized." "A loop of vas deferens is delivered through the scrotal skin and occluded." "The testes are twisted, which occludes the vas deferens." Correct Answer "A loop of vas deferens is delivered through the scrotal skin and occluded." Roger, a healthy 68-year-old man, comes in to see you with a complaint of sudden episodes of an urgent need to void. He has had several episodes of moderate amounts of unintentional urine loss during these times. Other than these episodes, he is voiding in amounts "normal" for him, with no leakage when he coughs or sneezes. The practitioner's initial diagnosis is which type of incontinence? Stress incontinence. Urge incontinence. Overflow incontinence. Mixed incontinence. Correct Answer Urge incontinence Tommy, age 15, comes to the clinic in acute distress with "belly pain." When obtaining his history, the nurse practitioner (NP) finds that he fell off his bike this morning and has vomited. Upon closer examination, the NP determines the belly pain to be left sided groin pain or pain in his left testicle. He is afebrile and reports no dysuria. Which of the following diagnoses is most likely? Testicular torsion. Epididymitis. Hydrocele. Varicocele. Correct Answer Testicular torsion You are referring a 73-year-old client for management of his prostate cancer with hormonal therapy. It is understood that goserelin acetate (Zoladex) acts as a method of androgen ablation by: Blocking the release of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH). Blocking 5-alpha-reductase, which converts testosterone into dihydrotestosterone. Inhibiting the binding of testosterone to cancer cells. Inhibiting the progression of cancer cells through the cell cycle.