NHA PHLEBOTOMY EXAM / QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
WITH RATIONALES / ALREADY GRADED A
Question 1
When collecting a blood specimen on a young adult patient with small, difficult-to-access veins,
which piece of equipment should the phlebotomist choose?
A) 21-gauge straight needle
B) 23-gauge winged collection set
C) 25-gauge syringe
D) 20-gauge multi-sample needle
Correct Answer: B) 23-gauge winged collection set
Rationale: A 23-gauge winged collection set (butterfly needle) has a smaller needle and offers
more control, making it ideal for small or fragile veins.
Question 2
Immediately after a phlebotomist completes a blood draw, the patient suddenly becomes pale,
sweaty, and their eyes roll back. The phlebotomist recognizes and addresses this as an episode
of:
A) Seizure
B) Syncope
C) Allergic reaction
D) Hematoma
Correct Answer: B) Syncope
Rationale: Syncope is the medical term for fainting, which is characterized by a sudden,
temporary loss of consciousness.
Question 3
A provider orders a pregnancy test, a random glucose, a WBC count, and coagulation studies. In
which order should the phlebotomist draw the tubes?
A) SST, EDTA, Sodium Citrate
B) EDTA, Sodium Citrate, SST
C) Sodium Citrate, SST, EDTA
,D) Red, Light Blue, Lavender
Correct Answer: C) Sodium Citrate, SST, EDTA
Rationale: The correct order of draw to prevent cross-contamination of additives is
coagulation (Light Blue - Sodium Citrate), followed by serum tubes (SST), and then
hematology tubes (Lavender - EDTA).
Question 4
Which of the following are examples of safety equipment found in a clinical laboratory?
A) Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)
B) Emergency showers
C) Eyewash stations
D) All of the above
Correct Answer: D) All of the above
Rationale: All these items are essential safety equipment designed to protect laboratory
personnel from chemical and biological hazards.
Question 5
Which of the following would NOT be a valid reason for a specimen to be rejected and require
recollection?
A) The tube was only half-full.
B) The specimen was hemolyzed.
C) The patient's name was misspelled on the label.
D) The patient experienced prolonged bleeding after needle withdrawal.
Correct Answer: D) The patient experienced prolonged bleeding after needle withdrawal.
Rationale: Prolonged bleeding is a complication of the procedure that needs to be managed,
but it does not affect the integrity of the collected specimen itself.
Question 6
The Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988 (CLIA '88) follows guidelines and
standards set by which organization to ensure quality laboratory testing?
A) Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
,B) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
C) Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI)
D) The Joint Commission (TJC)
Correct Answer: C) Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI)
Rationale: CLSI develops best practice standards and guidelines for clinical laboratories, which
are often incorporated into CLIA regulations.
Question 7
What is the first thing a medical professional should do upon entering a patient's room?
A) Check the patient's ID band.
B) Introduce themselves and state their purpose.
C) Ask the patient to state their full name.
D) Begin assembling their equipment.
Correct Answer: B) Introduce themselves and state their purpose.
Rationale: Proper professional etiquette and communication begin with introducing yourself
to the patient to establish rapport and explain why you are there.
Question 8
A patient received a dose of Lithium 30 minutes ago. The phlebotomist is now required to draw
a blood level. This level is known as a:
A) Trough level
B) Random level
C) Peak level
D) Baseline level
Correct Answer: C) Peak level
Rationale: A peak level is drawn shortly after a medication is administered (typically 30-60
minutes) to measure the highest concentration of the drug in the blood.
Question 9
A phlebotomist arrives in a patient's room and finds the patient's ID band on the bedside table.
What is the appropriate action for the phlebotomist to take?
, A) Ask the patient to state their full name and date of birth and then proceed.
B) Ask the patient's nurse to come to the room, identify the patient, and reapply the ID band
before drawing the blood.
C) Document that the ID band was not on the patient and proceed with the draw.
D) Cancel the lab order and inform the provider.
Correct Answer: B) Ask the patient's nurse to come to the room, identify the patient, and
reapply the ID band before drawing the blood.
Rationale: Proper patient identification is critical. The phlebotomist cannot proceed until the
patient is wearing a valid ID band, which must be applied by the patient's nurse.
Question 10
Touching a patient without their consent is known as:
A) Assault
B) Battery
C) Negligence
D) Malpractice
Correct Answer: B) Battery
Rationale: Battery is the intentional and wrongful physical contact with a person without their
consent.
Question 11
A 72-hour stool specimen is sometimes collected to determine the quantities of what
substance?
A) Ova and parasites
B) Fat
C) Occult blood
D) Bacteria
Correct Answer: B) Fat
Rationale: A quantitative fecal fat test, performed over a 72-hour collection period, is used to
diagnose conditions of malabsorption.
WITH RATIONALES / ALREADY GRADED A
Question 1
When collecting a blood specimen on a young adult patient with small, difficult-to-access veins,
which piece of equipment should the phlebotomist choose?
A) 21-gauge straight needle
B) 23-gauge winged collection set
C) 25-gauge syringe
D) 20-gauge multi-sample needle
Correct Answer: B) 23-gauge winged collection set
Rationale: A 23-gauge winged collection set (butterfly needle) has a smaller needle and offers
more control, making it ideal for small or fragile veins.
Question 2
Immediately after a phlebotomist completes a blood draw, the patient suddenly becomes pale,
sweaty, and their eyes roll back. The phlebotomist recognizes and addresses this as an episode
of:
A) Seizure
B) Syncope
C) Allergic reaction
D) Hematoma
Correct Answer: B) Syncope
Rationale: Syncope is the medical term for fainting, which is characterized by a sudden,
temporary loss of consciousness.
Question 3
A provider orders a pregnancy test, a random glucose, a WBC count, and coagulation studies. In
which order should the phlebotomist draw the tubes?
A) SST, EDTA, Sodium Citrate
B) EDTA, Sodium Citrate, SST
C) Sodium Citrate, SST, EDTA
,D) Red, Light Blue, Lavender
Correct Answer: C) Sodium Citrate, SST, EDTA
Rationale: The correct order of draw to prevent cross-contamination of additives is
coagulation (Light Blue - Sodium Citrate), followed by serum tubes (SST), and then
hematology tubes (Lavender - EDTA).
Question 4
Which of the following are examples of safety equipment found in a clinical laboratory?
A) Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)
B) Emergency showers
C) Eyewash stations
D) All of the above
Correct Answer: D) All of the above
Rationale: All these items are essential safety equipment designed to protect laboratory
personnel from chemical and biological hazards.
Question 5
Which of the following would NOT be a valid reason for a specimen to be rejected and require
recollection?
A) The tube was only half-full.
B) The specimen was hemolyzed.
C) The patient's name was misspelled on the label.
D) The patient experienced prolonged bleeding after needle withdrawal.
Correct Answer: D) The patient experienced prolonged bleeding after needle withdrawal.
Rationale: Prolonged bleeding is a complication of the procedure that needs to be managed,
but it does not affect the integrity of the collected specimen itself.
Question 6
The Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988 (CLIA '88) follows guidelines and
standards set by which organization to ensure quality laboratory testing?
A) Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
,B) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
C) Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI)
D) The Joint Commission (TJC)
Correct Answer: C) Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI)
Rationale: CLSI develops best practice standards and guidelines for clinical laboratories, which
are often incorporated into CLIA regulations.
Question 7
What is the first thing a medical professional should do upon entering a patient's room?
A) Check the patient's ID band.
B) Introduce themselves and state their purpose.
C) Ask the patient to state their full name.
D) Begin assembling their equipment.
Correct Answer: B) Introduce themselves and state their purpose.
Rationale: Proper professional etiquette and communication begin with introducing yourself
to the patient to establish rapport and explain why you are there.
Question 8
A patient received a dose of Lithium 30 minutes ago. The phlebotomist is now required to draw
a blood level. This level is known as a:
A) Trough level
B) Random level
C) Peak level
D) Baseline level
Correct Answer: C) Peak level
Rationale: A peak level is drawn shortly after a medication is administered (typically 30-60
minutes) to measure the highest concentration of the drug in the blood.
Question 9
A phlebotomist arrives in a patient's room and finds the patient's ID band on the bedside table.
What is the appropriate action for the phlebotomist to take?
, A) Ask the patient to state their full name and date of birth and then proceed.
B) Ask the patient's nurse to come to the room, identify the patient, and reapply the ID band
before drawing the blood.
C) Document that the ID band was not on the patient and proceed with the draw.
D) Cancel the lab order and inform the provider.
Correct Answer: B) Ask the patient's nurse to come to the room, identify the patient, and
reapply the ID band before drawing the blood.
Rationale: Proper patient identification is critical. The phlebotomist cannot proceed until the
patient is wearing a valid ID band, which must be applied by the patient's nurse.
Question 10
Touching a patient without their consent is known as:
A) Assault
B) Battery
C) Negligence
D) Malpractice
Correct Answer: B) Battery
Rationale: Battery is the intentional and wrongful physical contact with a person without their
consent.
Question 11
A 72-hour stool specimen is sometimes collected to determine the quantities of what
substance?
A) Ova and parasites
B) Fat
C) Occult blood
D) Bacteria
Correct Answer: B) Fat
Rationale: A quantitative fecal fat test, performed over a 72-hour collection period, is used to
diagnose conditions of malabsorption.
