NUR 1210 Adult
Health Nursing Exam
| 2025/2026 Verified
Questions & Correct
Answers
Section 1: Cardiovascular Disorders (Questions 1-15)
1. A nurse is caring for a 65-year-old client with heart failure who is receiving
furosemide 40 mg IV. What is the priority action after administration? A.
Monitor serum potassium levels B. Assess lung sounds for crackles C.
Encourage a high-sodium diet D. Position the client supine
B. Assess lung sounds for crackles
Rationale: Furosemide promotes diuresis but can cause rapid fluid shifts leading
to pulmonary edema if not monitored. Priority is respiratory assessment for
crackles indicating congestion, per 2025 AHA heart failure guidelines. Potassium
is important but secondary to ABCs; low-sodium diet recommended; semi-
Fowler's positioning preferred.
2. A client with atrial fibrillation is started on dabigatran 150 mg PO BID.
What instruction should the nurse provide regarding bleeding risk? A. Take
with high-fat meals B. Avoid OTC NSAIDs C. Stop if minor bruising occurs
D. Use a soft toothbrush
B. Avoid OTC NSAIDs
, Rationale: Dabigatran increases bleeding risk, and NSAIDs exacerbate this by
inhibiting platelets. 2025 ACC guidelines emphasize avoiding concomitant
antiplatelets; soft toothbrush aids gingival bleeding but NSAIDs are primary
interaction.
3. During assessment of a client with acute myocardial infarction, the nurse
notes ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. This indicates infarction in
which territory? A. Left anterior descending artery B. Left circumflex artery
C. Right coronary artery D. Left main coronary artery
C. Right coronary artery
Rationale: Inferior wall MI (leads II, III, aVF) typically involves the right
coronary artery (RCA), supplying the inferior myocardium. 2025 AHA STEMI
guidelines use ECG localization for cath lab activation; RCA occlusion may affect
AV node, causing bradycardia.
4. A 70-year-old client with chronic stable angina is prescribed nitroglycerin
0.4 mg SL PRN. What instruction regarding timing? A. Take before meals
B. Use up to 3 doses 5 minutes apart; call 911 if no relief C. Daily
prophylaxis D. With sildenafil
B. Use up to 3 doses 5 minutes apart; call 911 if no relief
Rationale: Nitroglycerin relieves angina by vasodilation; 2025 AHA instructs 3
doses max, then emergency if persistent, signaling unstable angina.
Contraindicated with PDE5 inhibitors; not prophylactic.
5. The nurse monitors a client receiving IV dobutamine for cardiogenic shock.
Expected therapeutic effect? A. Decreased heart rate B. Increased cardiac
output C. Vasodilation D. Diuresis
B. Increased cardiac output
Rationale: Dobutamine, a beta-1 agonist, enhances contractility and stroke
volume, improving CO in shock per 2025 SCCM guidelines. Monitor BP/HR; not
primary vasodilator or diuretic.
6. A client with endocarditis is prescribed vancomycin 15 mg/kg IV q12h.
What lab guides dosing? A. Serum creatinine B. Liver function tests C. CBC
D. Troponin
Health Nursing Exam
| 2025/2026 Verified
Questions & Correct
Answers
Section 1: Cardiovascular Disorders (Questions 1-15)
1. A nurse is caring for a 65-year-old client with heart failure who is receiving
furosemide 40 mg IV. What is the priority action after administration? A.
Monitor serum potassium levels B. Assess lung sounds for crackles C.
Encourage a high-sodium diet D. Position the client supine
B. Assess lung sounds for crackles
Rationale: Furosemide promotes diuresis but can cause rapid fluid shifts leading
to pulmonary edema if not monitored. Priority is respiratory assessment for
crackles indicating congestion, per 2025 AHA heart failure guidelines. Potassium
is important but secondary to ABCs; low-sodium diet recommended; semi-
Fowler's positioning preferred.
2. A client with atrial fibrillation is started on dabigatran 150 mg PO BID.
What instruction should the nurse provide regarding bleeding risk? A. Take
with high-fat meals B. Avoid OTC NSAIDs C. Stop if minor bruising occurs
D. Use a soft toothbrush
B. Avoid OTC NSAIDs
, Rationale: Dabigatran increases bleeding risk, and NSAIDs exacerbate this by
inhibiting platelets. 2025 ACC guidelines emphasize avoiding concomitant
antiplatelets; soft toothbrush aids gingival bleeding but NSAIDs are primary
interaction.
3. During assessment of a client with acute myocardial infarction, the nurse
notes ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. This indicates infarction in
which territory? A. Left anterior descending artery B. Left circumflex artery
C. Right coronary artery D. Left main coronary artery
C. Right coronary artery
Rationale: Inferior wall MI (leads II, III, aVF) typically involves the right
coronary artery (RCA), supplying the inferior myocardium. 2025 AHA STEMI
guidelines use ECG localization for cath lab activation; RCA occlusion may affect
AV node, causing bradycardia.
4. A 70-year-old client with chronic stable angina is prescribed nitroglycerin
0.4 mg SL PRN. What instruction regarding timing? A. Take before meals
B. Use up to 3 doses 5 minutes apart; call 911 if no relief C. Daily
prophylaxis D. With sildenafil
B. Use up to 3 doses 5 minutes apart; call 911 if no relief
Rationale: Nitroglycerin relieves angina by vasodilation; 2025 AHA instructs 3
doses max, then emergency if persistent, signaling unstable angina.
Contraindicated with PDE5 inhibitors; not prophylactic.
5. The nurse monitors a client receiving IV dobutamine for cardiogenic shock.
Expected therapeutic effect? A. Decreased heart rate B. Increased cardiac
output C. Vasodilation D. Diuresis
B. Increased cardiac output
Rationale: Dobutamine, a beta-1 agonist, enhances contractility and stroke
volume, improving CO in shock per 2025 SCCM guidelines. Monitor BP/HR; not
primary vasodilator or diuretic.
6. A client with endocarditis is prescribed vancomycin 15 mg/kg IV q12h.
What lab guides dosing? A. Serum creatinine B. Liver function tests C. CBC
D. Troponin
