ATI PN Medical-Surgical Practice Questions (1–200)
1. A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who is prescribed furosemide. Which
finding indicates the medication is effective?
A. Blood pressure increases
B. Decrease in lower extremity edema
C. Weight gain
D. Shortness of breath increases
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that removes excess fluid, reducing edema and
dyspnea.
2. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely with furosemide therapy?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypercalcemia
Rationale: Loop diuretics cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia.
,3. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
Which finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Clubbing of fingers
B. Productive cough
C. Respiratory rate of 8/min
D. Oxygen saturation of 91%
Rationale: A respiratory rate below 10/min indicates hypoventilation and possible respiratory
failure.
4. A client with diabetes mellitus reports blurred vision and frequent urination. Which
complication should the nurse suspect?
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Hyperglycemia
C. Retinopathy
D. Neuropathy
Rationale: Blurred vision and polyuria occur due to elevated blood glucose levels.
5. Which assessment should the nurse prioritize for a client with a new tracheostomy?
A. Communication ability
B. Comfort level
,C. Airway patency
D. Nutrition intake
Rationale: Airway maintenance is the first priority following a tracheostomy.
6. The nurse is caring for a client receiving a blood transfusion. The client develops chills
and back pain. What is the nurse’s first action?
A. Stop the transfusion immediately.
B. Increase the infusion rate
C. Notify the provider
D. Administer diphenhydramine
Rationale: Chills and back pain suggest a hemolytic reaction; the transfusion must be stopped
immediately.
7. Which laboratory test is most important for a client receiving warfarin?
A. INR (International Normalized Ratio)
B. aPTT
C. Platelet count
D. Fibrinogen
Rationale: The INR monitors warfarin effectiveness and safety; therapeutic range is usually 2–3.
, 8. A nurse is teaching a client with hypertension about dietary changes. Which food should
the client avoid?
A. Fresh fruits
B. Canned soups
C. Grilled chicken
D. Steamed vegetables
Rationale: Canned soups are high in sodium, which increases blood pressure.
9. A client has a chest tube with continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber. What does
this indicate?
A. Normal finding
B. Air leak in the system
C. Drainage blockage
D. Tube dislodgement
Rationale: Continuous bubbling suggests an air leak; intermittent bubbling is expected.
10. The nurse assesses a client with pneumonia. Which finding indicates improvement?
A. Oxygen saturation rises from 88% to 95%.
B. Respiratory rate increases
C. Productive cough with thick sputum
1. A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who is prescribed furosemide. Which
finding indicates the medication is effective?
A. Blood pressure increases
B. Decrease in lower extremity edema
C. Weight gain
D. Shortness of breath increases
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that removes excess fluid, reducing edema and
dyspnea.
2. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely with furosemide therapy?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypercalcemia
Rationale: Loop diuretics cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia.
,3. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
Which finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Clubbing of fingers
B. Productive cough
C. Respiratory rate of 8/min
D. Oxygen saturation of 91%
Rationale: A respiratory rate below 10/min indicates hypoventilation and possible respiratory
failure.
4. A client with diabetes mellitus reports blurred vision and frequent urination. Which
complication should the nurse suspect?
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Hyperglycemia
C. Retinopathy
D. Neuropathy
Rationale: Blurred vision and polyuria occur due to elevated blood glucose levels.
5. Which assessment should the nurse prioritize for a client with a new tracheostomy?
A. Communication ability
B. Comfort level
,C. Airway patency
D. Nutrition intake
Rationale: Airway maintenance is the first priority following a tracheostomy.
6. The nurse is caring for a client receiving a blood transfusion. The client develops chills
and back pain. What is the nurse’s first action?
A. Stop the transfusion immediately.
B. Increase the infusion rate
C. Notify the provider
D. Administer diphenhydramine
Rationale: Chills and back pain suggest a hemolytic reaction; the transfusion must be stopped
immediately.
7. Which laboratory test is most important for a client receiving warfarin?
A. INR (International Normalized Ratio)
B. aPTT
C. Platelet count
D. Fibrinogen
Rationale: The INR monitors warfarin effectiveness and safety; therapeutic range is usually 2–3.
, 8. A nurse is teaching a client with hypertension about dietary changes. Which food should
the client avoid?
A. Fresh fruits
B. Canned soups
C. Grilled chicken
D. Steamed vegetables
Rationale: Canned soups are high in sodium, which increases blood pressure.
9. A client has a chest tube with continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber. What does
this indicate?
A. Normal finding
B. Air leak in the system
C. Drainage blockage
D. Tube dislodgement
Rationale: Continuous bubbling suggests an air leak; intermittent bubbling is expected.
10. The nurse assesses a client with pneumonia. Which finding indicates improvement?
A. Oxygen saturation rises from 88% to 95%.
B. Respiratory rate increases
C. Productive cough with thick sputum
