Fall SemeSter 2025 | teSt BaNK For Perry’S
materNal Child NurSiNg Care iN CaNada (3rd
editioN) By liSa KeeNaN-liNdSay & Cheryl a.
SamS | iSBN 9780323759199 | ComPlete teSt
BaNK with detailed ratioNaleS | 100% VeriFied
aNd uPdated 2025 editioN | a+ grade
guaraNteed
Question 1: What is the primary purpose of prenatal care?
A) To monitor fetal development
B) To manage pregnancy-related complications
C) C) To promote maternal and fetal health
D) To prepare for labor and delivery
Correct Option: C) To promote maternal and fetal health
Rationale: Prenatal care is essential for ensuring the health and well-being of both the
mother and the fetus. It involves regular check-ups that help identify and manage
potential complications, promote healthy behaviors, and provide education about
pregnancy and childbirth.
Question 2: Which of the following is a sign of potential complications in
pregnancy?
A) Mild edema in the lower extremities
B) B) Severe headache not relieved by rest
C) Increased fatigue
D) Frequent urination
Correct Option: B) Severe headache not relieved by rest
Rationale: A severe headache that does not improve with rest could indicate a serious
condition such as preeclampsia or gestational hypertension. Other options listed are
commonly experienced symptoms during pregnancy and are generally not indicative of
complications.
Question 3: At what age should infants begin to receive solid foods?
A) 2 months
B) B) 6 months
C) 9 months
D) 12 months
,Correct Option: B) 6 months
Rationale: The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends introducing solid foods at
around 6 months of age, as this is when infants typically develop the necessary motor
skills and digestive capabilities to handle solids, in addition to their nutritional needs
increasing.
Question 4: What is the priority nursing intervention for a child experiencing an
asthma attack?
A) Administer oral steroids
B) B) Provide bronchodilator therapy
C) Encourage deep breathing exercises
D) Assess oxygen saturation levels
Correct Option: B) Provide bronchodilator therapy
Rationale: During an asthma attack, the priority is to ensure the airway is open and to
relieve bronchospasm. Bronchodilator therapy is the most immediate and effective
intervention. Although assessing oxygen saturation is important, it is secondary to
providing relief from the acute symptoms of the attack.
Question 5: What is the most common cause of maternal mortality?
A) Hemorrhage
B) B) Hypertensive disorders
C) Infection
D) Embolism
Correct Option: B) Hypertensive disorders
Rationale: Hypertensive disorders, including preeclampsia and eclampsia, are
significant contributors to maternal mortality. They can lead to severe complications
that affect both the mother and fetus if not managed properly.
Question 6: Which immunization is recommended for newborns before hospital
discharge?
A) MMR
B) B) Hepatitis B
C) Varicella
D) Influenza
Correct Option: B) Hepatitis B
,Rationale: The Hepatitis B vaccine is recommended for all newborns before hospital
discharge to prevent potential transmission of the virus, which can have serious health
implications.
Question 7: When should a nurse begin assessing fetal heart tones during labor?
A) At the onset of labor
B) B) After cervical dilation reaches 4 cm
C) Every 15 minutes
D) Only when the mother reports decreased fetal movement
Correct Option: B) After cervical dilation reaches 4 cm
Rationale: Fetal heart tones are typically assessed once labor is established, often
around 4 cm of cervical dilation, to monitor fetal well-being during the active phase of
labor.
Question 8: What is the most appropriate nursing action for a newborn with
jaundice?
A) Increase feeding frequency
B) B) Monitor bilirubin levels
C) Apply lotion to the skin
D) Bathe the baby daily
Correct Option: B) Monitor bilirubin levels
Rationale: Monitoring bilirubin levels is crucial in managing jaundice, as it helps
determine the severity of the condition and the need for treatment, such as
phototherapy.
Question 9: Which of the following is a sign of neonatal sepsis?
A) High-pitched cry
B) B) Temperature instability
C) Increased appetite
D) Normal skin color
Correct Option: B) Temperature instability
Rationale: Temperature instability, including hypothermia or fever, is a key sign of
neonatal sepsis. Newborns often do not exhibit typical symptoms of infection, making
this a critical indicator for assessment.
, Question 10: What is the recommended position for a laboring woman to promote
fetal descent?
A) Supine
B) B) Hands and knees
C) Lithotomy
D) Trendelenburg
Correct Option: B) Hands and knees
Rationale: The hands-and-knees position can help relieve pressure on the back and
promote optimal fetal positioning and descent through the birth canal.
Question 11: What is the primary concern for a child with a cleft lip and palate?
A) Speech development
B) B) Feeding difficulties
C) Hearing loss
D) Dental issues
Correct Option: B) Feeding difficulties
Rationale: Infants with cleft lip and palate often experience challenges with feeding
due to the inability to create a proper seal, making it difficult to suck effectively.
Question 12: Which of the following is a risk factor for developing gestational
diabetes?
A) Low maternal age
B) B) Obesity
C) High protein diet
D) Regular exercise
Correct Option: B) Obesity
Rationale: Obesity is a significant risk factor for gestational diabetes, as excess body fat
can affect insulin sensitivity and glucose metabolism during pregnancy.
Question 13: What is the best way to prevent sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)?
A) Bed-sharing with parents
B) B) Placing the infant on their back to sleep
C) Using soft bedding
D) Allowing the infant to sleep in a car seat
Correct Option: B) Placing the infant on their back to sleep
materNal Child NurSiNg Care iN CaNada (3rd
editioN) By liSa KeeNaN-liNdSay & Cheryl a.
SamS | iSBN 9780323759199 | ComPlete teSt
BaNK with detailed ratioNaleS | 100% VeriFied
aNd uPdated 2025 editioN | a+ grade
guaraNteed
Question 1: What is the primary purpose of prenatal care?
A) To monitor fetal development
B) To manage pregnancy-related complications
C) C) To promote maternal and fetal health
D) To prepare for labor and delivery
Correct Option: C) To promote maternal and fetal health
Rationale: Prenatal care is essential for ensuring the health and well-being of both the
mother and the fetus. It involves regular check-ups that help identify and manage
potential complications, promote healthy behaviors, and provide education about
pregnancy and childbirth.
Question 2: Which of the following is a sign of potential complications in
pregnancy?
A) Mild edema in the lower extremities
B) B) Severe headache not relieved by rest
C) Increased fatigue
D) Frequent urination
Correct Option: B) Severe headache not relieved by rest
Rationale: A severe headache that does not improve with rest could indicate a serious
condition such as preeclampsia or gestational hypertension. Other options listed are
commonly experienced symptoms during pregnancy and are generally not indicative of
complications.
Question 3: At what age should infants begin to receive solid foods?
A) 2 months
B) B) 6 months
C) 9 months
D) 12 months
,Correct Option: B) 6 months
Rationale: The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends introducing solid foods at
around 6 months of age, as this is when infants typically develop the necessary motor
skills and digestive capabilities to handle solids, in addition to their nutritional needs
increasing.
Question 4: What is the priority nursing intervention for a child experiencing an
asthma attack?
A) Administer oral steroids
B) B) Provide bronchodilator therapy
C) Encourage deep breathing exercises
D) Assess oxygen saturation levels
Correct Option: B) Provide bronchodilator therapy
Rationale: During an asthma attack, the priority is to ensure the airway is open and to
relieve bronchospasm. Bronchodilator therapy is the most immediate and effective
intervention. Although assessing oxygen saturation is important, it is secondary to
providing relief from the acute symptoms of the attack.
Question 5: What is the most common cause of maternal mortality?
A) Hemorrhage
B) B) Hypertensive disorders
C) Infection
D) Embolism
Correct Option: B) Hypertensive disorders
Rationale: Hypertensive disorders, including preeclampsia and eclampsia, are
significant contributors to maternal mortality. They can lead to severe complications
that affect both the mother and fetus if not managed properly.
Question 6: Which immunization is recommended for newborns before hospital
discharge?
A) MMR
B) B) Hepatitis B
C) Varicella
D) Influenza
Correct Option: B) Hepatitis B
,Rationale: The Hepatitis B vaccine is recommended for all newborns before hospital
discharge to prevent potential transmission of the virus, which can have serious health
implications.
Question 7: When should a nurse begin assessing fetal heart tones during labor?
A) At the onset of labor
B) B) After cervical dilation reaches 4 cm
C) Every 15 minutes
D) Only when the mother reports decreased fetal movement
Correct Option: B) After cervical dilation reaches 4 cm
Rationale: Fetal heart tones are typically assessed once labor is established, often
around 4 cm of cervical dilation, to monitor fetal well-being during the active phase of
labor.
Question 8: What is the most appropriate nursing action for a newborn with
jaundice?
A) Increase feeding frequency
B) B) Monitor bilirubin levels
C) Apply lotion to the skin
D) Bathe the baby daily
Correct Option: B) Monitor bilirubin levels
Rationale: Monitoring bilirubin levels is crucial in managing jaundice, as it helps
determine the severity of the condition and the need for treatment, such as
phototherapy.
Question 9: Which of the following is a sign of neonatal sepsis?
A) High-pitched cry
B) B) Temperature instability
C) Increased appetite
D) Normal skin color
Correct Option: B) Temperature instability
Rationale: Temperature instability, including hypothermia or fever, is a key sign of
neonatal sepsis. Newborns often do not exhibit typical symptoms of infection, making
this a critical indicator for assessment.
, Question 10: What is the recommended position for a laboring woman to promote
fetal descent?
A) Supine
B) B) Hands and knees
C) Lithotomy
D) Trendelenburg
Correct Option: B) Hands and knees
Rationale: The hands-and-knees position can help relieve pressure on the back and
promote optimal fetal positioning and descent through the birth canal.
Question 11: What is the primary concern for a child with a cleft lip and palate?
A) Speech development
B) B) Feeding difficulties
C) Hearing loss
D) Dental issues
Correct Option: B) Feeding difficulties
Rationale: Infants with cleft lip and palate often experience challenges with feeding
due to the inability to create a proper seal, making it difficult to suck effectively.
Question 12: Which of the following is a risk factor for developing gestational
diabetes?
A) Low maternal age
B) B) Obesity
C) High protein diet
D) Regular exercise
Correct Option: B) Obesity
Rationale: Obesity is a significant risk factor for gestational diabetes, as excess body fat
can affect insulin sensitivity and glucose metabolism during pregnancy.
Question 13: What is the best way to prevent sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)?
A) Bed-sharing with parents
B) B) Placing the infant on their back to sleep
C) Using soft bedding
D) Allowing the infant to sleep in a car seat
Correct Option: B) Placing the infant on their back to sleep
