NUR 529 Exam 3 (Actual Exam) | All Questions and Correct answers |
Graded A+ | Verified Answers | Brand New Version!
What percentage of erythropoietin is produced by the kidney? - correct answer Approximately
90%
What percentage of erythropoietin is produced by the liver and other organs? - correct answer
Approximately 10%
How does kidney dysfunction affect red blood cell development? - correct answer It impacts
RBC development and availability.
What deficiencies may contribute to anemia in chronic kidney disease (CKD)? - correct answer
Vitamin B12, iron, and folate deficiencies.
What is the hemoglobin level that defines chronic anemia in adult males? - correct answer Less
than 13.0 g/dL
What is the hemoglobin level that defines chronic anemia in adult females? - correct answer
Less than 12 g/dL
What is the most profound hematologic alteration that accompanies chronic kidney disease
(CKD)? - correct answer Chronic anemia
What is the association between GFR decline and hematocrit in advanced CKD in African
Americans? - correct answer Research shows an association between GFR decline and the
decline in hematocrit.
What do NKF guidelines recommend for individuals with a GFR less than 60 mL/min/1.73 m2? -
correct answer They should be evaluated for anemia.
What measures are included in the assessment for anemia in CKD? - correct answer Measures
of hemoglobin, hematocrit, and iron stores.
What are some factors contributing to anemia in CKD? - correct answer Chronic blood loss,
hemolysis, bone marrow suppression, and decreased red cell production.
Why is erythropoietin production usually insufficient in kidney failure? - correct answer It is
insufficient to stimulate adequate red blood cell production by the bone marrow.
What are some causes of iron deficiency in people with CKD? - correct answer Anorexia, dietary
restrictions, and blood loss during dialysis.
What is the major metabolic function of colonic microorganisms? - correct answer The
fermentation of undigestible dietary residue and endogenous mucus.
,What is a major source of energy in the colon? - correct answer Fermentation of nondigestible
carbohydrates, including resistant starches, cellulose, pectins, and unabsorbed sugars.
What role do colonic microorganisms play in vitamin synthesis? - correct answer They
synthesize vitamin K.
Why do newborn infants not synthesize adequate amounts of vitamin K initially? - correct
answer Because the normal colonic bacterial flora has not yet become established.
What protective role does the resident gut flora provide? - correct answer It provides a crucial
line of resistance to colonization by exogenous microbes.
What can disrupt the microbial balance in the gut? - correct answer The administration of
broad-spectrum antibiotics.
What is the role of probiotics? - correct answer They are live microorganisms that can modify
the composition of enteric flora when ingested.
What are some commonly used probiotics? - correct answer Lactobacilli, bifidobacteria, and
nonpathogenic Escherichia coli.
In which disease have probiotics shown value in maintaining remission? - correct answer
Ulcerative colitis.
What can people with aspirin-related gastritis be unaware of? - correct answer They can be
totally unaware of the condition or may complain only of heartburn or sour stomach.
What symptoms are associated with gastritis from excessive alcohol consumption? - correct
answer It often causes transient gastric distress, which may lead to vomiting and, in more
severe situations, to bleeding and hematemesis.
What is the onset time for gastritis caused by staphylococcal enterotoxins? - correct answer It
usually has an abrupt and violent onset, with gastric distress and vomiting occurring
approximately 5 hours after ingestion of contaminated food.
Is acute gastritis a self-limiting disorder? - correct answer Yes, acute gastritis is usually a self-
limiting disorder, with complete regeneration and healing occurring within several days of
removal of the inciting agent.
What is the primary treatment for celiac disease? - correct answer Removal of gluten and
related proteins from the diet.
What grains contain gluten? - correct answer Wheat, barley, and rye.
Can oat products be safe for people with celiac disease? - correct answer Oat products are
nontoxic but may be contaminated with wheat during processing.
, What types of products are available for those on a gluten-free diet? - correct answer Many
gluten-free types of bread, cereals, cookies, and other products.
Which food groups are generally free of gluten? - correct answer Meats, vegetables, fruits, and
dairy products.
What is the result of complete exclusion of dietary gluten for celiac disease patients? - correct
answer Rapid and complete healing of the intestinal mucosa.
What is the major cause of prehepatic jaundice? - correct answer Excessive hemolysis of red
blood cells.
What occurs during hemolytic jaundice? - correct answer Red blood cells are destroyed at a
rate exceeding the liver's ability to remove bilirubin from the blood.
What can cause hemolytic jaundice following a blood transfusion? - correct answer The
decreased lifespan of the donated red blood cells.
What is hereditary spherocytosis? - correct answer A condition where red cell membranes are
defective, leading to hemolytic jaundice.
What is hemolytic disease of the newborn? - correct answer A condition that can lead to
excessive bilirubin production in newborns.
How can internal hemorrhage affect bilirubin levels? - correct answer It can lead to excess
bilirubin production with the reabsorption of blood.
What is ineffective erythropoiesis? - correct answer A condition that can increase bilirubin
production.
What causes neonatal hyperbilirubinemia? - correct answer Increased production of bilirubin in
newborn infants and their limited ability to excrete it from 0 to 14 days old.
Why are premature infants at particular risk for hyperbilirubinemia? - correct answer Their red
cells have a shorter lifespan and higher turnover rate.
What are the characteristics of prehepatic jaundice? - correct answer Mild jaundice, elevated
unconjugated bilirubin, normal colored stools, and no bilirubin in the urine.
What are the known hepatotropic viruses? - correct answer Hepatitis A virus (HAV), hepatitis B
virus (HBV), hepatitis B-associated delta virus (HDV), hepatitis C virus (HCV), and hepatitis E
virus (HEV).
What do all hepatotropic viruses cause? - correct answer Acute hepatitis.
What factors do hepatotropic viruses differ in? - correct answer Mode of transmission,
incubation period, mechanism, degree and chronicity of liver damage, and ability to evolve to a
carrier state.
Graded A+ | Verified Answers | Brand New Version!
What percentage of erythropoietin is produced by the kidney? - correct answer Approximately
90%
What percentage of erythropoietin is produced by the liver and other organs? - correct answer
Approximately 10%
How does kidney dysfunction affect red blood cell development? - correct answer It impacts
RBC development and availability.
What deficiencies may contribute to anemia in chronic kidney disease (CKD)? - correct answer
Vitamin B12, iron, and folate deficiencies.
What is the hemoglobin level that defines chronic anemia in adult males? - correct answer Less
than 13.0 g/dL
What is the hemoglobin level that defines chronic anemia in adult females? - correct answer
Less than 12 g/dL
What is the most profound hematologic alteration that accompanies chronic kidney disease
(CKD)? - correct answer Chronic anemia
What is the association between GFR decline and hematocrit in advanced CKD in African
Americans? - correct answer Research shows an association between GFR decline and the
decline in hematocrit.
What do NKF guidelines recommend for individuals with a GFR less than 60 mL/min/1.73 m2? -
correct answer They should be evaluated for anemia.
What measures are included in the assessment for anemia in CKD? - correct answer Measures
of hemoglobin, hematocrit, and iron stores.
What are some factors contributing to anemia in CKD? - correct answer Chronic blood loss,
hemolysis, bone marrow suppression, and decreased red cell production.
Why is erythropoietin production usually insufficient in kidney failure? - correct answer It is
insufficient to stimulate adequate red blood cell production by the bone marrow.
What are some causes of iron deficiency in people with CKD? - correct answer Anorexia, dietary
restrictions, and blood loss during dialysis.
What is the major metabolic function of colonic microorganisms? - correct answer The
fermentation of undigestible dietary residue and endogenous mucus.
,What is a major source of energy in the colon? - correct answer Fermentation of nondigestible
carbohydrates, including resistant starches, cellulose, pectins, and unabsorbed sugars.
What role do colonic microorganisms play in vitamin synthesis? - correct answer They
synthesize vitamin K.
Why do newborn infants not synthesize adequate amounts of vitamin K initially? - correct
answer Because the normal colonic bacterial flora has not yet become established.
What protective role does the resident gut flora provide? - correct answer It provides a crucial
line of resistance to colonization by exogenous microbes.
What can disrupt the microbial balance in the gut? - correct answer The administration of
broad-spectrum antibiotics.
What is the role of probiotics? - correct answer They are live microorganisms that can modify
the composition of enteric flora when ingested.
What are some commonly used probiotics? - correct answer Lactobacilli, bifidobacteria, and
nonpathogenic Escherichia coli.
In which disease have probiotics shown value in maintaining remission? - correct answer
Ulcerative colitis.
What can people with aspirin-related gastritis be unaware of? - correct answer They can be
totally unaware of the condition or may complain only of heartburn or sour stomach.
What symptoms are associated with gastritis from excessive alcohol consumption? - correct
answer It often causes transient gastric distress, which may lead to vomiting and, in more
severe situations, to bleeding and hematemesis.
What is the onset time for gastritis caused by staphylococcal enterotoxins? - correct answer It
usually has an abrupt and violent onset, with gastric distress and vomiting occurring
approximately 5 hours after ingestion of contaminated food.
Is acute gastritis a self-limiting disorder? - correct answer Yes, acute gastritis is usually a self-
limiting disorder, with complete regeneration and healing occurring within several days of
removal of the inciting agent.
What is the primary treatment for celiac disease? - correct answer Removal of gluten and
related proteins from the diet.
What grains contain gluten? - correct answer Wheat, barley, and rye.
Can oat products be safe for people with celiac disease? - correct answer Oat products are
nontoxic but may be contaminated with wheat during processing.
, What types of products are available for those on a gluten-free diet? - correct answer Many
gluten-free types of bread, cereals, cookies, and other products.
Which food groups are generally free of gluten? - correct answer Meats, vegetables, fruits, and
dairy products.
What is the result of complete exclusion of dietary gluten for celiac disease patients? - correct
answer Rapid and complete healing of the intestinal mucosa.
What is the major cause of prehepatic jaundice? - correct answer Excessive hemolysis of red
blood cells.
What occurs during hemolytic jaundice? - correct answer Red blood cells are destroyed at a
rate exceeding the liver's ability to remove bilirubin from the blood.
What can cause hemolytic jaundice following a blood transfusion? - correct answer The
decreased lifespan of the donated red blood cells.
What is hereditary spherocytosis? - correct answer A condition where red cell membranes are
defective, leading to hemolytic jaundice.
What is hemolytic disease of the newborn? - correct answer A condition that can lead to
excessive bilirubin production in newborns.
How can internal hemorrhage affect bilirubin levels? - correct answer It can lead to excess
bilirubin production with the reabsorption of blood.
What is ineffective erythropoiesis? - correct answer A condition that can increase bilirubin
production.
What causes neonatal hyperbilirubinemia? - correct answer Increased production of bilirubin in
newborn infants and their limited ability to excrete it from 0 to 14 days old.
Why are premature infants at particular risk for hyperbilirubinemia? - correct answer Their red
cells have a shorter lifespan and higher turnover rate.
What are the characteristics of prehepatic jaundice? - correct answer Mild jaundice, elevated
unconjugated bilirubin, normal colored stools, and no bilirubin in the urine.
What are the known hepatotropic viruses? - correct answer Hepatitis A virus (HAV), hepatitis B
virus (HBV), hepatitis B-associated delta virus (HDV), hepatitis C virus (HCV), and hepatitis E
virus (HEV).
What do all hepatotropic viruses cause? - correct answer Acute hepatitis.
What factors do hepatotropic viruses differ in? - correct answer Mode of transmission,
incubation period, mechanism, degree and chronicity of liver damage, and ability to evolve to a
carrier state.
