NR 226 FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING EXAM COMPLETE
QUESTIONS AND 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS (PASS
GUARANTEE)
1. Q: What are the five rights of medication administration? ANSWER
Right patient, right medication, right dose, right route, and right time. Some
sources include additional rights like right documentation, right to refuse, and
right assessment.
2. Q: What is the proper order for donning PPE? ANSWER Gown,
mask/respirator, goggles/face shield, gloves.
3. Q: What is the proper order for removing PPE? ANSWER Gloves,
goggles/face shield, gown, mask/respirator (remove outside the patient room).
4. Q: Define asepsis. ANSWER The absence of disease-causing
microorganisms. Medical asepsis reduces microorganisms; surgical asepsis
eliminates all microorganisms.
5. Q: What is the difference between subjective and objective data?
ANSWER Subjective data is what the patient reports (symptoms, feelings).
Objective data is what the nurse observes or measures (vital signs, lab values).
6. Q: What does SOAP stand for in documentation? ANSWER Subjective,
Objective, Assessment, Plan.
7. Q: What is informed consent? ANSWER A patient's voluntary agreement
to a treatment or procedure after receiving full disclosure of risks, benefits,
alternatives, and consequences of refusal.
8. Q: What are the stages of pressure injury? ANSWER Stage 1 (non-
blanchable redness), Stage 2 (partial thickness loss), Stage 3 (full thickness
loss), Stage 4 (full thickness with exposed bone/tendon), unstageable (covered
with slough/eschar), and deep tissue pressure injury.
9. Q: What is the Glasgow Coma Scale used for? ANSWER To assess level
of consciousness by evaluating eye opening, verbal response, and motor
response (scale of 3-15).
,10. Q: What does HIPAA protect? ANSWER Patient privacy and
confidentiality of health information.
11. Q: What is the nursing process? ANSWER A systematic approach:
Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation (ADPIE).
12. Q: Define negligence. ANSWER Failure to provide care that a reasonably
prudent nurse would provide under similar circumstances.
13. Q: What is malpractice? ANSWER Professional negligence by a
healthcare provider that causes harm to a patient.
14. Q: What are Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs from bottom to top?
ANSWER Physiological, Safety, Love/Belonging, Esteem, Self-actualization.
15. Q: What is the purpose of hand hygiene? ANSWER To reduce
transmission of microorganisms and prevent healthcare-associated infections.
16. Q: When should hand hygiene be performed? ANSWER Before patient
contact, before aseptic procedures, after body fluid exposure, after patient
contact, and after contact with patient surroundings.
17. Q: What is the chain of infection? ANSWER Infectious agent, reservoir,
portal of exit, mode of transmission, portal of entry, susceptible host.
18. Q: What are standard precautions? ANSWER Basic infection
prevention practices applied to all patients regardless of diagnosis (hand
hygiene, PPE, respiratory hygiene, safe injection practices).
19. Q: What are contact precautions used for? ANSWER Infections spread
by direct or indirect contact (MRSA, VRE, C. difficile).
20. Q: What are droplet precautions used for? ANSWER Infections spread
through large droplets (influenza, pertussis, meningococcal disease).
21. Q: What are airborne precautions used for? ANSWER Infections spread
through small airborne particles (tuberculosis, measles, varicella).
22. Q: What is a living will? ANSWER A legal document stating a person's
wishes regarding life-sustaining treatment if they become unable to
communicate.
23. Q: What is a durable power of attorney for healthcare? ANSWER A
legal document designating someone to make healthcare decisions if the patient
is unable to do so.
, 24. Q: What does DNR mean? ANSWER Do Not Resuscitate - a medical
order indicating no CPR should be performed if cardiac or respiratory arrest
occurs.
25. Q: What is therapeutic communication? ANSWER Goal-directed
communication that promotes patient well-being through techniques like active
listening, open-ended questions, and reflection.
26. Q: What are the ABCs of emergency care? ANSWER Airway,
Breathing, Circulation.
27. Q: What is the purpose of a restraint? ANSWER To protect the patient
or others from harm when all other interventions have failed; requires physician
order and frequent monitoring.
28. Q: What is cultural competence? ANSWER The ability to provide care
that respects diverse cultural beliefs, values, and practices.
29. Q: What is patient advocacy? ANSWER Supporting and protecting
patient rights, ensuring their voice is heard in healthcare decisions.
30. Q: What is the purpose of a nursing care plan? ANSWER To provide
individualized, organized approach to patient care with specific goals and
interventions.
Section 2: Vital Signs (Questions 31-50)
31. Q: What are normal adult vital signs? ANSWER Temperature 97.8-99°F
(36.5-37.2°C), Pulse 60-100 bpm, Respirations 12-20/min, Blood pressure
<120/80 mmHg, SpO2 95-100%.
32. Q: What is bradycardia? ANSWER Heart rate less than 60 beats per
minute.
33. Q: What is tachycardia? ANSWER Heart rate greater than 100 beats per
minute.
34. Q: What is hypertension? ANSWER Consistently elevated blood pressure
≥130/80 mmHg.
35. Q: What is hypotension? ANSWER Low blood pressure, typically
systolic <90 mmHg or MAP <65 mmHg.
QUESTIONS AND 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS (PASS
GUARANTEE)
1. Q: What are the five rights of medication administration? ANSWER
Right patient, right medication, right dose, right route, and right time. Some
sources include additional rights like right documentation, right to refuse, and
right assessment.
2. Q: What is the proper order for donning PPE? ANSWER Gown,
mask/respirator, goggles/face shield, gloves.
3. Q: What is the proper order for removing PPE? ANSWER Gloves,
goggles/face shield, gown, mask/respirator (remove outside the patient room).
4. Q: Define asepsis. ANSWER The absence of disease-causing
microorganisms. Medical asepsis reduces microorganisms; surgical asepsis
eliminates all microorganisms.
5. Q: What is the difference between subjective and objective data?
ANSWER Subjective data is what the patient reports (symptoms, feelings).
Objective data is what the nurse observes or measures (vital signs, lab values).
6. Q: What does SOAP stand for in documentation? ANSWER Subjective,
Objective, Assessment, Plan.
7. Q: What is informed consent? ANSWER A patient's voluntary agreement
to a treatment or procedure after receiving full disclosure of risks, benefits,
alternatives, and consequences of refusal.
8. Q: What are the stages of pressure injury? ANSWER Stage 1 (non-
blanchable redness), Stage 2 (partial thickness loss), Stage 3 (full thickness
loss), Stage 4 (full thickness with exposed bone/tendon), unstageable (covered
with slough/eschar), and deep tissue pressure injury.
9. Q: What is the Glasgow Coma Scale used for? ANSWER To assess level
of consciousness by evaluating eye opening, verbal response, and motor
response (scale of 3-15).
,10. Q: What does HIPAA protect? ANSWER Patient privacy and
confidentiality of health information.
11. Q: What is the nursing process? ANSWER A systematic approach:
Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation (ADPIE).
12. Q: Define negligence. ANSWER Failure to provide care that a reasonably
prudent nurse would provide under similar circumstances.
13. Q: What is malpractice? ANSWER Professional negligence by a
healthcare provider that causes harm to a patient.
14. Q: What are Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs from bottom to top?
ANSWER Physiological, Safety, Love/Belonging, Esteem, Self-actualization.
15. Q: What is the purpose of hand hygiene? ANSWER To reduce
transmission of microorganisms and prevent healthcare-associated infections.
16. Q: When should hand hygiene be performed? ANSWER Before patient
contact, before aseptic procedures, after body fluid exposure, after patient
contact, and after contact with patient surroundings.
17. Q: What is the chain of infection? ANSWER Infectious agent, reservoir,
portal of exit, mode of transmission, portal of entry, susceptible host.
18. Q: What are standard precautions? ANSWER Basic infection
prevention practices applied to all patients regardless of diagnosis (hand
hygiene, PPE, respiratory hygiene, safe injection practices).
19. Q: What are contact precautions used for? ANSWER Infections spread
by direct or indirect contact (MRSA, VRE, C. difficile).
20. Q: What are droplet precautions used for? ANSWER Infections spread
through large droplets (influenza, pertussis, meningococcal disease).
21. Q: What are airborne precautions used for? ANSWER Infections spread
through small airborne particles (tuberculosis, measles, varicella).
22. Q: What is a living will? ANSWER A legal document stating a person's
wishes regarding life-sustaining treatment if they become unable to
communicate.
23. Q: What is a durable power of attorney for healthcare? ANSWER A
legal document designating someone to make healthcare decisions if the patient
is unable to do so.
, 24. Q: What does DNR mean? ANSWER Do Not Resuscitate - a medical
order indicating no CPR should be performed if cardiac or respiratory arrest
occurs.
25. Q: What is therapeutic communication? ANSWER Goal-directed
communication that promotes patient well-being through techniques like active
listening, open-ended questions, and reflection.
26. Q: What are the ABCs of emergency care? ANSWER Airway,
Breathing, Circulation.
27. Q: What is the purpose of a restraint? ANSWER To protect the patient
or others from harm when all other interventions have failed; requires physician
order and frequent monitoring.
28. Q: What is cultural competence? ANSWER The ability to provide care
that respects diverse cultural beliefs, values, and practices.
29. Q: What is patient advocacy? ANSWER Supporting and protecting
patient rights, ensuring their voice is heard in healthcare decisions.
30. Q: What is the purpose of a nursing care plan? ANSWER To provide
individualized, organized approach to patient care with specific goals and
interventions.
Section 2: Vital Signs (Questions 31-50)
31. Q: What are normal adult vital signs? ANSWER Temperature 97.8-99°F
(36.5-37.2°C), Pulse 60-100 bpm, Respirations 12-20/min, Blood pressure
<120/80 mmHg, SpO2 95-100%.
32. Q: What is bradycardia? ANSWER Heart rate less than 60 beats per
minute.
33. Q: What is tachycardia? ANSWER Heart rate greater than 100 beats per
minute.
34. Q: What is hypertension? ANSWER Consistently elevated blood pressure
≥130/80 mmHg.
35. Q: What is hypotension? ANSWER Low blood pressure, typically
systolic <90 mmHg or MAP <65 mmHg.
