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NUR 190 Psychiatric-Mental Health Nursing Final Exam (2025_2026) — Real 130 Questions & Answers with Rationales (Comprehensive Assessment, DSM-5-TR Aligned.pdf

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NUR 190 Psychiatric-Mental Health Nursing Final Exam (2025_2026) — Real 130 Questions & Answers with Rationales (Comprehensive Assessment, DSM-5-TR A

Instelling
NUR 190 Psychiatric-Mental Health Nursing
Vak
NUR 190 Psychiatric-Mental Health Nursing

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NUR 190 Psychiatric-Mental Health Nursing
Final Exam (2025/2026) — Real 130
Questions & Answers with Rationales
(Comprehensive Assessment, DSM-5-TR
Aligned)
1.​ A client with major depressive disorder reports early morning awakening, anhedonia,
and significant weight loss. Which feature best describes this presentation?​
A. Atypical features​
B. Melancholic features​
C. Seasonal pattern​
D. Catatonia​
Answer: B. Melancholic features.​
Rationale: Early morning awakening, profound anhedonia, and weight loss are classic
melancholic features per DSM-5-TR.​

2.​ A 25-year-old with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) complains of excessive worry for
8 months and muscle tension. First-line nursing intervention?​
A. Start benzodiazepine immediately​
B. Teach diaphragmatic breathing and relaxation techniques​
C. Recommend alcohol to relax​
D. Encourage isolation to avoid stressors​
Answer: B. Teach diaphragmatic breathing and relaxation techniques.​
Rationale: Nonpharmacologic coping skills (relaxation, breathing) are essential first-line
nursing interventions; benzodiazepines are not first teaching step.​

3.​ A client with schizophrenia exhibits flat affect and poverty of speech. These are
examples of:​
A. Positive symptoms​
B. Negative symptoms​
C. Cognitive symptoms​
D. Mood symptoms​
Answer: B. Negative symptoms.​
Rationale: Flat affect and alogia (poverty of speech) are negative symptoms indicating
diminished function.​

4.​ A patient on haloperidol develops acute muscle rigidity and fever. What is the priority
action?​

, A. Continue medication and observe​
B. Give benztropine IM and reassess in 24 hours​
C. Immediately hold antipsychotic and notify provider — possible neuroleptic malignant
syndrome (NMS)​
D. Administer lorazepam and discharge​
Answer: C. Immediately hold antipsychotic and notify provider — possible NMS.​
Rationale: Rigidity and fever suggest NMS, a life-threatening emergency requiring
stopping antipsychotic and urgent treatment.​

5.​ A client with anorexia nervosa has BMI 16 and bradycardia. Nursing priority?​
A. Provide group therapy only​
B. Weight restoration and medical stabilization (monitor vitals, electrolytes)​
C. Encourage aerobic exercise​
D. Focus only on cognitive restructuring​
Answer: B. Weight restoration and medical stabilization (monitor vitals,
electrolytes).​
Rationale: Severe malnutrition requires medical stabilization before intensive
psychotherapy.​

6.​ A patient refuses all food but has capacity. Nurse should:​
A. Force-feed to prevent malnutrition​
B. Respect refusal and document, while assessing capacity and offering alternatives​
C. Restrain and administer NG feeding without order​
D. Discharge immediately​
Answer: B. Respect refusal and document, while assessing capacity and offering
alternatives.​
Rationale: Adults with capacity have the right to refuse; nurses must assess
decision-making capacity and document; seek provider orders if medically necessary.​

7.​ Which medication is first-line for PTSD in adults?​
A. Sertraline (SSRI)​
B. Haloperidol​
C. Benzodiazepines long-term​
D. Lithium​
Answer: A. Sertraline (SSRI).​
Rationale: SSRIs (sertraline, paroxetine) are evidence-based first-line
pharmacotherapy for PTSD.​

8.​ A patient hears voices telling them to harm others. Best immediate nursing action?​
A. Ignore — auditory hallucinations are harmless​
B. Ensure safety of patient and others; conduct risk assessment and remove means​
C. Tell patient voices are imaginary and punish them​
D. Leave the patient alone to avoid escalation​
Answer: B. Ensure safety of patient and others; conduct risk assessment and

, remove means.​
Rationale: Command hallucinations require safety assessment and immediate
interventions to prevent harm.​

9.​ Lithium monitoring requires regular measurement of:​
A. Liver enzymes weekly​
B. Serum lithium level and kidney function (BUN/Cr, TSH)​
C. Plasma glucose only​
D. CBC only​
Answer: B. Serum lithium level and kidney function (BUN/Cr, TSH).​
Rationale: Lithium has a narrow therapeutic index; monitor levels and renal/thyroid
function.​

10.​A client with borderline personality disorder threatens self-harm during an argument.
Nursing response:​
A. Ignore to avoid reinforcement​
B. Provide calm, empathetic limit setting and safety planning (contracting, observe)​
C. Agree with manipulation to end conflict​
D. Immediately discharge the client​
Answer: B. Provide calm, empathetic limit setting and safety planning
(contracting, observe).​
Rationale: Use validation, boundary setting, and safety measures; de-escalation is key.​

11.​An adolescent presents with binge eating episodes and distress but no compensatory
behaviors — likely diagnosis:​
A. Bulimia nervosa​
B. Anorexia nervosa binge-purge type​
C. Binge-eating disorder​
D. Avoidant/restrictive food intake disorder​
Answer: C. Binge-eating disorder.​
Rationale: Binge episodes with distress and no compensatory behaviors fit
binge-eating disorder criteria.​

12.​A patient with dementia becomes agitated at night (sundowning). Nursing interventions
include:​
A. Increase nighttime stimuli and lights only​
B. Reorientation, consistent routine, low stimulation environment, daytime activity​
C. Physical restraints at night​
D. High-dose antipsychotic as first step​
Answer: B. Reorientation, consistent routine, low stimulation environment,
daytime activity.​
Rationale: Nonpharmacologic measures (routines, orientation) are first-line for
sundowning.​

, 13.​A first-line medication class for OCD is:​
A. SSRIs at higher doses​
B. Low-dose antipsychotics only​
C. Tricyclics exclusively​
D. Benzodiazepines exclusively​
Answer: A. SSRIs at higher doses.​
Rationale: SSRIs (and clomipramine, a TCA) are evidence-based; SSRIs often
required at higher doses.​

14.​Which statement indicates insight loss in psychosis?​
A. “The doctor is helping me.”​
B. “I don’t need medication — the TV controls my brain.”​
C. “I feel sad sometimes.”​
D. “I worry about finances.”​
Answer: B. “I don’t need medication — the TV controls my brain.”​
Rationale: Delusional belief and refusal of treatment reflect impaired insight.​

15.​A priority nursing action for a client with imminent suicide risk is:​
A. Provide brochures on coping​
B. Implement one-to-one observation, remove dangerous items, ensure constant
supervision​
C. Allow the patient privacy overnight​
D. Ask family to leave​
Answer: B. Implement one-to-one observation, remove dangerous items, ensure
constant supervision.​
Rationale: Immediate safety measures are essential for high suicide risk.​

16.​Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is most indicated for:​
A. Mild anxiety disorder only​
B. Treatment-resistant severe depression with psychotic features or suicidality​
C. Simple phobias​
D. Antisocial personality disorder​
Answer: B. Treatment-resistant severe depression with psychotic features or
suicidality.​
Rationale: ECT is effective for severe, refractory depression and life-threatening cases.​

17.​What is the nurse’s best response when a patient says, “I feel hopeless”?​
A. “Everyone feels that way sometimes.”​
B. “Tell me more about those feelings; are you having thoughts of harming yourself?”​
C. “You shouldn’t feel hopeless.”​
D. “Stop complaining.”​
Answer: B. “Tell me more about those feelings; are you having thoughts of
harming yourself?”​

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