HERZING UNIVERSITY HESI MENTAL HEALTH
COMPREHENSIVE EXAM 2026 QUESTIONS
WITH ANSWERS GUARANTEED TO PASS
◉ The client is assessed by the nurse, a social worker, and the healthcare
provider (HCP). Based on their assessments, hospitalization is
recommended for psychotic depression.
Which behavior is inconsistent with depression. Answer: Hearing a
man's voice.
Rationale: Auditory hallucinations are inconsistent with depression and
are more likely to occur with psychoses. However, clients may
experience a psychotic depression in which there is evidence of
psychosis.
◉ The nurse asks the client to sign the consent for treatment.
If the client refuses treatment, which behaviors justify short-term
involuntary treatment? (Select all that apply. One, some, or all options
may be correct.). Answer: Unable to meet basic self-care needs.
Rationale: Involuntary treatment can be initiated if the client is unable to
meet basic self-care needs in such a way that he or she is a danger to
self.
States she has a plan to harm herself.
,Rationale: Short-term involuntary care may be initiated to protect the
client if she has a plan to harm herself. It can also be initiated if she
presents an intentional danger to others.
◉ The client signs the treatment form and is admitted to the mental
health unit. During the first days of hospitalization, she begins
antidepressant therapy with fluoxetine 10 mg.
In what classification of drugs is the antidepressant fluoxetine. Answer:
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI).
Rationale: Fluoxetine is an SSRI antidepressant.
◉ What is the major action of SSRI antidepressants. Answer: Increase
availability of serotonin.
Rationale: The major action of SSRIs is to selectively inhibit the
reuptake of serotonin and increase the availability of serotonin.
◉ The nurse understands that SSRIs are now more widely prescribed
than tricyclics for antidepressant therapy. What is the rationale. Answer:
Tricyclics have more dangerous side effects.
Rationale: SSRIs are more widely prescribed than tricyclics because
they have fewer side effects, and tricyclics can be lethal in an overdose
because they are cardiotoxic.
,◉ When the client receives fluoxetine, the nurse must explain the
purpose and when to expect therapeutic effectiveness. What should the
nurse tell the client regarding when she will begin to feel less depressed.
Answer: Generally within 1 to 4 weeks.
Rationale: In general, it takes 2 to 4 weeks for antidepressant effects to
begin. However, it depends on the individual, and some clients may feel
effects start as soon as 1 week or as late as 4 weeks. It is suggested that
depression occurs when a depletion of neurotransmitters in the synapse
cause the transmitter receptors to increase. As the antidepressants make
more transmitters available, it takes the receptors several weeks to return
their numbers back to normal and allow normal synaptic activity.
◉ The nurse should be aware of common side effects of SSRI
antidepressants such as fluoxetine. Which side effect should be
communicated to the client that commonly occur in clients who are
taking SSRI antidepressants. Answer: Gastrointestinal disturbances.
Rationale: GI disturbances such as nausea and diarrhea, as well as
genitourinary side effects such as sexual dysfunction, are common with
SSRIs. SSRIs do not have significant anticholinergic, cardiovascular, or
sedative side effects.
◉ The client also begins an atypical antipsychotic, risperidone, because
she reports hearing a "scary voice" upon admission. Although the client
remains very withdrawn and noncommunicative, the nurse must explain
the purpose of risperidone. Which explanation is best. Answer:
Risperidone will help the think more clearly.
, Rationale: Antipsychotic medications target symptoms related to
disorders of thinking such as psychosis and behaviors associated with
agitation and disorganization or speech and behavior.
◉ The nurse is reviewing the client's admission lab work on the third
day of hospitalization. Admission labs include thyroid profile, urinalysis,
chemistry panel, pregnancy test, urine drug screen, and VDRL (RPR)
which tests for venereal disease.
A thyroid profile is important for several reasons. What role do thyroid
levels play in depression. Answer: Hypothyroidism can lead to feeling
sluggish and depressed.
Rationale: Thyroid levels can help detect hypothyroidism, which can
lead to depression.
◉ The nurse understands that a VDRL is routinely done on admission
for which reason. Answer: It is a screening test for syphilis.
Rationale: A VDRL (RPR) is a serum screening test for syphilis, which
can be undetected and dormant and can cause cognitive impairment in
later stages. If the screening serum test is positive, a more specific test is
required to make the diagnosis of syphilis.
◉ When the client awakens in the morning, she sits for periods of time
at the edge of her bed. She does not initiate combing her hair, getting
dressed, or going to breakfast. Which intervention should the nurse
implement. Answer: Help the client with daily activities.
COMPREHENSIVE EXAM 2026 QUESTIONS
WITH ANSWERS GUARANTEED TO PASS
◉ The client is assessed by the nurse, a social worker, and the healthcare
provider (HCP). Based on their assessments, hospitalization is
recommended for psychotic depression.
Which behavior is inconsistent with depression. Answer: Hearing a
man's voice.
Rationale: Auditory hallucinations are inconsistent with depression and
are more likely to occur with psychoses. However, clients may
experience a psychotic depression in which there is evidence of
psychosis.
◉ The nurse asks the client to sign the consent for treatment.
If the client refuses treatment, which behaviors justify short-term
involuntary treatment? (Select all that apply. One, some, or all options
may be correct.). Answer: Unable to meet basic self-care needs.
Rationale: Involuntary treatment can be initiated if the client is unable to
meet basic self-care needs in such a way that he or she is a danger to
self.
States she has a plan to harm herself.
,Rationale: Short-term involuntary care may be initiated to protect the
client if she has a plan to harm herself. It can also be initiated if she
presents an intentional danger to others.
◉ The client signs the treatment form and is admitted to the mental
health unit. During the first days of hospitalization, she begins
antidepressant therapy with fluoxetine 10 mg.
In what classification of drugs is the antidepressant fluoxetine. Answer:
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI).
Rationale: Fluoxetine is an SSRI antidepressant.
◉ What is the major action of SSRI antidepressants. Answer: Increase
availability of serotonin.
Rationale: The major action of SSRIs is to selectively inhibit the
reuptake of serotonin and increase the availability of serotonin.
◉ The nurse understands that SSRIs are now more widely prescribed
than tricyclics for antidepressant therapy. What is the rationale. Answer:
Tricyclics have more dangerous side effects.
Rationale: SSRIs are more widely prescribed than tricyclics because
they have fewer side effects, and tricyclics can be lethal in an overdose
because they are cardiotoxic.
,◉ When the client receives fluoxetine, the nurse must explain the
purpose and when to expect therapeutic effectiveness. What should the
nurse tell the client regarding when she will begin to feel less depressed.
Answer: Generally within 1 to 4 weeks.
Rationale: In general, it takes 2 to 4 weeks for antidepressant effects to
begin. However, it depends on the individual, and some clients may feel
effects start as soon as 1 week or as late as 4 weeks. It is suggested that
depression occurs when a depletion of neurotransmitters in the synapse
cause the transmitter receptors to increase. As the antidepressants make
more transmitters available, it takes the receptors several weeks to return
their numbers back to normal and allow normal synaptic activity.
◉ The nurse should be aware of common side effects of SSRI
antidepressants such as fluoxetine. Which side effect should be
communicated to the client that commonly occur in clients who are
taking SSRI antidepressants. Answer: Gastrointestinal disturbances.
Rationale: GI disturbances such as nausea and diarrhea, as well as
genitourinary side effects such as sexual dysfunction, are common with
SSRIs. SSRIs do not have significant anticholinergic, cardiovascular, or
sedative side effects.
◉ The client also begins an atypical antipsychotic, risperidone, because
she reports hearing a "scary voice" upon admission. Although the client
remains very withdrawn and noncommunicative, the nurse must explain
the purpose of risperidone. Which explanation is best. Answer:
Risperidone will help the think more clearly.
, Rationale: Antipsychotic medications target symptoms related to
disorders of thinking such as psychosis and behaviors associated with
agitation and disorganization or speech and behavior.
◉ The nurse is reviewing the client's admission lab work on the third
day of hospitalization. Admission labs include thyroid profile, urinalysis,
chemistry panel, pregnancy test, urine drug screen, and VDRL (RPR)
which tests for venereal disease.
A thyroid profile is important for several reasons. What role do thyroid
levels play in depression. Answer: Hypothyroidism can lead to feeling
sluggish and depressed.
Rationale: Thyroid levels can help detect hypothyroidism, which can
lead to depression.
◉ The nurse understands that a VDRL is routinely done on admission
for which reason. Answer: It is a screening test for syphilis.
Rationale: A VDRL (RPR) is a serum screening test for syphilis, which
can be undetected and dormant and can cause cognitive impairment in
later stages. If the screening serum test is positive, a more specific test is
required to make the diagnosis of syphilis.
◉ When the client awakens in the morning, she sits for periods of time
at the edge of her bed. She does not initiate combing her hair, getting
dressed, or going to breakfast. Which intervention should the nurse
implement. Answer: Help the client with daily activities.
