FDNY G60 TEST FINAL ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED /VERIFIED
ANSWERS (100% CORRECT) /ALREADY GRADED A+
1. What is the primary purpose of the Fire Department of the City of New York (FDNY) in relation to fire
alarm systems?
A. To install systems for building owners
B. To test and maintain the systems quarterly
C. To promulgate and enforce rules and standards for the installation, maintenance, and use of these
systems
D. To supply the batteries for all standby power systems
ANSWER: C. The FDNY's role is regulatory. They create the rules (promulgate) found in the NYC Fire Code
and FC 404, and enforce them through inspections and the issuance of Certificates of Fitness. They do
not install systems or supply materials.
2. A G60 Certificate of Fitness holder is primarily responsible for:
A. The structural integrity of the building
B. The inspection, testing, and maintenance of a building's fire alarm system
C. The financial management of the building's safety budget
D. The evacuation of occupants during a drill
ANSWER: B. The core duty of a G60 CoF holder is the proper care and operation of the fire alarm system
as per FDNY regulations, including its inspection, testing, and maintenance.
3. According to FDNY regulations, how often must a visual inspection of the fire alarm control unit be
typically performed?
A. Weekly
B. Monthly
C. Quarterly
D. Annually
,ANSWER: B. A visual inspection of the fire alarm control unit for obvious problems or trouble signals is
generally required on a monthly basis.
4. What is the minimum duration for which the standby battery of a fire alarm system must be able to
operate the system in a non-fire condition?
A. 4 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 60 minutes
ANSWER: C. FDNY regulations require that the standby batteries be capable of powering the system for
at least 24 hours under normal, non-alarm conditions, and then be capable of operating the system in
alarm for at least 15 minutes.
5. Upon activation of a fire alarm initiating device, the fire alarm system must automatically activate the:
A. Elevator capture system
B. Notification appliances
C. HVAC system shutdown
D. All of the above
ANSWER: B. While elevators and HVAC may be part of a building's fire safety plan, the fundamental
requirement for the fire alarm system itself is to activate the notification appliances (horns, strobes,
speakers) to alert occupants.
6. A "Trouble Signal" on a fire alarm control panel indicates:
A. A fire emergency
B. A supervisory condition
C. A fault in the system
D. A successful test completion
,ANSWER: C. A trouble signal indicates a problem with the system, such as a broken wire, disconnected
device, or power issue. It does not indicate a fire or a supervisory condition for other systems (like
sprinkler valves).
7. A "Supervisory Signal" typically indicates an abnormal condition in which of the following?
A. A primary phone line for the fire alarm has failed
B. A sprinkler system control valve has been closed
C. A smoke detector has accumulated dust
D. A pull station has been physically damaged
ANSWER: B. A supervisory signal is specifically for monitoring the status of other fire protection systems,
most commonly indicating that a sprinkler system control valve has been closed, impairing the system.
8. The required sound level for audible fire alarm notification appliances in sleeping areas is:
A. At least 15 dBA above the average ambient sound level
B. At least 75 dBA at pillow level
C. At least 45 dBA above the average ambient sound level
D. At least 100 dBA at the bedroom door
ANSWER: A. The code requires audible alarms to be 15 dBA above the average ambient sound level or 5
dBA above the maximum sound level having a duration of at least 60 seconds, whichever is greater.
9. What is the primary function of a manual fire alarm box (pull station)?
A. To silence the alarm bells during a false alarm
B. To allow occupants to manually initiate a fire alarm signal
C. To reset the fire alarm system after an alarm
D. To test the battery standby power
ANSWER: B. The purpose of a manual pull station is to provide a means for building occupants to
manually and directly initiate the fire alarm signal.
, 10. The required horizontal distance between manual fire alarm pull stations should not exceed:
A. 100 feet
B. 200 feet
C. 300 feet
D. 400 feet
ANSWER: B. FDNY codes generally require that travel distance to the nearest pull station does not
exceed 200 feet, ensuring one is always within a reasonable distance.
11. What type of fire alarm initiating device is best suited for detecting a smoldering, smoky fire?
A. Heat Detector
B. Flame Detector
C. Smoke Detector
D. Pull Station
ANSWER: C. Smoke detectors are designed to respond to the visible or invisible combustion products of
a fire, making them effective for smoldering fires that produce significant smoke before intense heat.
12. Which type of heat detector is designed to operate at a fixed temperature, such as 135°F or 195°F?
A. Rate-of-Rise Heat Detector
B. Fixed Temperature Heat Detector
C. Rate Compensation Heat Detector
D. Photoelectric Heat Detector
ANSWER: B. A fixed-temperature heat detector is designed to activate when its operating element
reaches a specific, predetermined temperature.
13. A Rate-of-Rise heat detector activates when:
A. The ambient temperature reaches a fixed set point
ANSWERS (100% CORRECT) /ALREADY GRADED A+
1. What is the primary purpose of the Fire Department of the City of New York (FDNY) in relation to fire
alarm systems?
A. To install systems for building owners
B. To test and maintain the systems quarterly
C. To promulgate and enforce rules and standards for the installation, maintenance, and use of these
systems
D. To supply the batteries for all standby power systems
ANSWER: C. The FDNY's role is regulatory. They create the rules (promulgate) found in the NYC Fire Code
and FC 404, and enforce them through inspections and the issuance of Certificates of Fitness. They do
not install systems or supply materials.
2. A G60 Certificate of Fitness holder is primarily responsible for:
A. The structural integrity of the building
B. The inspection, testing, and maintenance of a building's fire alarm system
C. The financial management of the building's safety budget
D. The evacuation of occupants during a drill
ANSWER: B. The core duty of a G60 CoF holder is the proper care and operation of the fire alarm system
as per FDNY regulations, including its inspection, testing, and maintenance.
3. According to FDNY regulations, how often must a visual inspection of the fire alarm control unit be
typically performed?
A. Weekly
B. Monthly
C. Quarterly
D. Annually
,ANSWER: B. A visual inspection of the fire alarm control unit for obvious problems or trouble signals is
generally required on a monthly basis.
4. What is the minimum duration for which the standby battery of a fire alarm system must be able to
operate the system in a non-fire condition?
A. 4 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 60 minutes
ANSWER: C. FDNY regulations require that the standby batteries be capable of powering the system for
at least 24 hours under normal, non-alarm conditions, and then be capable of operating the system in
alarm for at least 15 minutes.
5. Upon activation of a fire alarm initiating device, the fire alarm system must automatically activate the:
A. Elevator capture system
B. Notification appliances
C. HVAC system shutdown
D. All of the above
ANSWER: B. While elevators and HVAC may be part of a building's fire safety plan, the fundamental
requirement for the fire alarm system itself is to activate the notification appliances (horns, strobes,
speakers) to alert occupants.
6. A "Trouble Signal" on a fire alarm control panel indicates:
A. A fire emergency
B. A supervisory condition
C. A fault in the system
D. A successful test completion
,ANSWER: C. A trouble signal indicates a problem with the system, such as a broken wire, disconnected
device, or power issue. It does not indicate a fire or a supervisory condition for other systems (like
sprinkler valves).
7. A "Supervisory Signal" typically indicates an abnormal condition in which of the following?
A. A primary phone line for the fire alarm has failed
B. A sprinkler system control valve has been closed
C. A smoke detector has accumulated dust
D. A pull station has been physically damaged
ANSWER: B. A supervisory signal is specifically for monitoring the status of other fire protection systems,
most commonly indicating that a sprinkler system control valve has been closed, impairing the system.
8. The required sound level for audible fire alarm notification appliances in sleeping areas is:
A. At least 15 dBA above the average ambient sound level
B. At least 75 dBA at pillow level
C. At least 45 dBA above the average ambient sound level
D. At least 100 dBA at the bedroom door
ANSWER: A. The code requires audible alarms to be 15 dBA above the average ambient sound level or 5
dBA above the maximum sound level having a duration of at least 60 seconds, whichever is greater.
9. What is the primary function of a manual fire alarm box (pull station)?
A. To silence the alarm bells during a false alarm
B. To allow occupants to manually initiate a fire alarm signal
C. To reset the fire alarm system after an alarm
D. To test the battery standby power
ANSWER: B. The purpose of a manual pull station is to provide a means for building occupants to
manually and directly initiate the fire alarm signal.
, 10. The required horizontal distance between manual fire alarm pull stations should not exceed:
A. 100 feet
B. 200 feet
C. 300 feet
D. 400 feet
ANSWER: B. FDNY codes generally require that travel distance to the nearest pull station does not
exceed 200 feet, ensuring one is always within a reasonable distance.
11. What type of fire alarm initiating device is best suited for detecting a smoldering, smoky fire?
A. Heat Detector
B. Flame Detector
C. Smoke Detector
D. Pull Station
ANSWER: C. Smoke detectors are designed to respond to the visible or invisible combustion products of
a fire, making them effective for smoldering fires that produce significant smoke before intense heat.
12. Which type of heat detector is designed to operate at a fixed temperature, such as 135°F or 195°F?
A. Rate-of-Rise Heat Detector
B. Fixed Temperature Heat Detector
C. Rate Compensation Heat Detector
D. Photoelectric Heat Detector
ANSWER: B. A fixed-temperature heat detector is designed to activate when its operating element
reaches a specific, predetermined temperature.
13. A Rate-of-Rise heat detector activates when:
A. The ambient temperature reaches a fixed set point
