MN DENTAL JURISPRUDENCE EXAM NEW UPDATE
2025/2026 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ACTUAL TEST
WITH COMPLETE SOLUTION/100% VERIFIED
1. What is the primary state agency responsible for licensing and regulating dentists and dental
hygienists in Minnesota?
ANS- The Minnesota Board of Dentistry.
2. According to the Minnesota Board of Dentistry, what is the minimum required number of
hours of continuing education (CE) per biennium for a licensed dentist?
ANS- 50 hours.
3. A dental hygienist in Minnesota must complete how many hours of continuing education per
biennial renewal period?
ANS- 25 hours.
4. What specific continuing education requirement must all dental licensees complete every
biennium regarding the prescribing of opioids and substance use disorders?
ANS- At least two hours.
5. Under what circumstances can a dentist delegate the administration of local anesthesia to a
qualified dental assistant?
ANS- It cannot be delegated; only licensed dental hygienists or other dentists can administer
local anesthesia.
6. What is the mandatory reporting obligation for a dentist who has reasonable cause to believe
that a colleague is unable to practice with reasonable skill and safety due to illness, substance
abuse, or other factors?
ANS- The dentist must report the individual to the Minnesota Board of Dentistry.
,7. Define the scope of practice for a Licensed Dental Assistant (LDA) in Minnesota.
ANS- An LDA may perform basic supportive dental procedures specified in the Dental Practice
Act under the direct supervision of a licensed dentist.
8. What is the required level of supervision for a dental hygienist performing scaling and root
planing in a nursing home setting?
ANS- General supervision (the dentist has authorized the procedure but is not required to be
physically present).
9. How long must patient dental records be retained by a dentist after the last date of
professional service?
ANS- Seven years.
10. What information must be included on a valid prescription form for a controlled substance?
ANS- The prescriber's name, address, phone number, DEA number, patient's name and address,
drug name, strength, quantity, directions for use, and date of issue.
11. Which schedule of controlled substances has the highest potential for abuse and has no
accepted medical use in the United States?
ANS- Schedule I.
12. What is the purpose of the Minnesota Prescription Monitoring Program (PMP)?
ANS- To track the prescribing and dispensing of controlled substances to patients.
13. When must a dentist check the PMP before prescribing an opioid or other controlled
substance?
,ANS- It is required for all new opioid prescriptions and at least quarterly for patients on long-
term opioid therapy.
14. What are the informed consent requirements for a dental procedure in Minnesota?
ANS- The patient must be informed of the diagnosis, nature of the proposed procedure,
material risks, benefits, alternatives, and the likely consequences of no treatment.
15. Who is authorized to provide informed consent for a minor patient?
ANS- The minor's parent or legal guardian.
16. At what age is a minor in Minnesota considered emancipated for the purpose of consenting
to their own dental treatment?
ANS- There is no specific "emancipated minor" statute for dental care; consent is generally from
a parent/guardian. However, a minor may consent if they are married, a parent, or living apart
and managing their own financial affairs.
17. What action must a dentist take if they suspect a patient is a victim of child abuse or
neglect?
ANS- They must immediately report the suspicion orally to the local welfare, police, or county
agency, followed by a written report within 72 hours.
18. Are dental professionals mandated reporters for vulnerable adult abuse?
ANS- Yes.
19. What constitutes patient abandonment?
ANS- Terminating the dentist-patient relationship without reasonable notice to the patient and
without providing an opportunity for the patient to find another dentist.
, 20. Describe the proper procedure for terminating the dentist-patient relationship.
ANS- Provide written notice to the patient, agree to continue emergency treatment for a
reasonable period (e.g., 30 days), offer assistance in finding a new dentist, and trANSfer records
upon signed authorization.
21. What are the sterilization requirements for critical instruments in a dental office?
ANS- They must be sterilized after each use by heat sterilization (autoclave, chemical vapor, or
dry heat).
22. What is the recommended frequency for testing dental sterilizers with biological monitors
(spore tests)?
ANS- At least weekly.
23. What level of disinfectant is required for clinical contact surfaces after each patient?
ANS- An EPA-registered hospital-grade intermediate-level disinfectant.
24. What are the OSHA requirements for an Exposure Control Plan?
ANS- It must be a written plan, updated annually, and detail the protective measures the office
takes to minimize occupational exposure to bloodborne pathogens.
25. What must be done following an occupational exposure incident, such as a needlestick?
ANS- Provide immediate and confidential medical evaluation, follow-up, and documentation of
the route of exposure and source individual.
26. What is the primary purpose of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
(HIPAA)?
ANS- To protect the privacy and security of patients' protected health information (PHI).
2025/2026 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ACTUAL TEST
WITH COMPLETE SOLUTION/100% VERIFIED
1. What is the primary state agency responsible for licensing and regulating dentists and dental
hygienists in Minnesota?
ANS- The Minnesota Board of Dentistry.
2. According to the Minnesota Board of Dentistry, what is the minimum required number of
hours of continuing education (CE) per biennium for a licensed dentist?
ANS- 50 hours.
3. A dental hygienist in Minnesota must complete how many hours of continuing education per
biennial renewal period?
ANS- 25 hours.
4. What specific continuing education requirement must all dental licensees complete every
biennium regarding the prescribing of opioids and substance use disorders?
ANS- At least two hours.
5. Under what circumstances can a dentist delegate the administration of local anesthesia to a
qualified dental assistant?
ANS- It cannot be delegated; only licensed dental hygienists or other dentists can administer
local anesthesia.
6. What is the mandatory reporting obligation for a dentist who has reasonable cause to believe
that a colleague is unable to practice with reasonable skill and safety due to illness, substance
abuse, or other factors?
ANS- The dentist must report the individual to the Minnesota Board of Dentistry.
,7. Define the scope of practice for a Licensed Dental Assistant (LDA) in Minnesota.
ANS- An LDA may perform basic supportive dental procedures specified in the Dental Practice
Act under the direct supervision of a licensed dentist.
8. What is the required level of supervision for a dental hygienist performing scaling and root
planing in a nursing home setting?
ANS- General supervision (the dentist has authorized the procedure but is not required to be
physically present).
9. How long must patient dental records be retained by a dentist after the last date of
professional service?
ANS- Seven years.
10. What information must be included on a valid prescription form for a controlled substance?
ANS- The prescriber's name, address, phone number, DEA number, patient's name and address,
drug name, strength, quantity, directions for use, and date of issue.
11. Which schedule of controlled substances has the highest potential for abuse and has no
accepted medical use in the United States?
ANS- Schedule I.
12. What is the purpose of the Minnesota Prescription Monitoring Program (PMP)?
ANS- To track the prescribing and dispensing of controlled substances to patients.
13. When must a dentist check the PMP before prescribing an opioid or other controlled
substance?
,ANS- It is required for all new opioid prescriptions and at least quarterly for patients on long-
term opioid therapy.
14. What are the informed consent requirements for a dental procedure in Minnesota?
ANS- The patient must be informed of the diagnosis, nature of the proposed procedure,
material risks, benefits, alternatives, and the likely consequences of no treatment.
15. Who is authorized to provide informed consent for a minor patient?
ANS- The minor's parent or legal guardian.
16. At what age is a minor in Minnesota considered emancipated for the purpose of consenting
to their own dental treatment?
ANS- There is no specific "emancipated minor" statute for dental care; consent is generally from
a parent/guardian. However, a minor may consent if they are married, a parent, or living apart
and managing their own financial affairs.
17. What action must a dentist take if they suspect a patient is a victim of child abuse or
neglect?
ANS- They must immediately report the suspicion orally to the local welfare, police, or county
agency, followed by a written report within 72 hours.
18. Are dental professionals mandated reporters for vulnerable adult abuse?
ANS- Yes.
19. What constitutes patient abandonment?
ANS- Terminating the dentist-patient relationship without reasonable notice to the patient and
without providing an opportunity for the patient to find another dentist.
, 20. Describe the proper procedure for terminating the dentist-patient relationship.
ANS- Provide written notice to the patient, agree to continue emergency treatment for a
reasonable period (e.g., 30 days), offer assistance in finding a new dentist, and trANSfer records
upon signed authorization.
21. What are the sterilization requirements for critical instruments in a dental office?
ANS- They must be sterilized after each use by heat sterilization (autoclave, chemical vapor, or
dry heat).
22. What is the recommended frequency for testing dental sterilizers with biological monitors
(spore tests)?
ANS- At least weekly.
23. What level of disinfectant is required for clinical contact surfaces after each patient?
ANS- An EPA-registered hospital-grade intermediate-level disinfectant.
24. What are the OSHA requirements for an Exposure Control Plan?
ANS- It must be a written plan, updated annually, and detail the protective measures the office
takes to minimize occupational exposure to bloodborne pathogens.
25. What must be done following an occupational exposure incident, such as a needlestick?
ANS- Provide immediate and confidential medical evaluation, follow-up, and documentation of
the route of exposure and source individual.
26. What is the primary purpose of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
(HIPAA)?
ANS- To protect the privacy and security of patients' protected health information (PHI).
