NR 546 FINAL PRACTICE EXAM PSYCHOPHARMACOLOGY
NEWEST ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE 100 QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY
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A patient reports upset stomach and diarrhea 3 days after taking new prescription
of sertraline. Which of the following is the most appropriate response from the
PMHNP?
A. "Start doubling the dose of sertraline and your symptoms will begin to ease
up".
B. "Most side effects subside after 4-5 days. Your body is getting adjusted to the
increased serotonin levels".
C. "Stop taking it immediately and go to the local emergency department".
D. "You must take Sertraline with food, otherwise you will continue to experience
GI symptoms".
B. "Most side effects subside after 4-5 days. Your body is getting adjusted to the
increased serotonin levels".
During a 2 week follow up appointment, the patient reports no improvement in
depressive symptoms with escitalopram. Which of the following statement made
by the PMHNP is correct?
A. "Let's discontinue escitalopram and start you on something stronger".
B. "It can take up to 6 weeks before you notice improvements of depressive
symptoms".
C. "I am going to prescibe Trazodone. Take it at night to help you sleep".
D. "Start taking two pills at a time".
B. "It can take up to 6 weeks before you notice improvements of depressive
symptoms".
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, NR 546 Final PRACTICE EXAM Psychopharmacology NEWEST ACTUAL EXAM
Duloxetine effects which two neurotransmitters?
A. serotonin and norepinephrine
B. serotonin and dopamine
C. norepinephrine and GABA
D. glutamate and acetylcholine
A. serotonin and norepinephrine
Awura, a 70 year old patient diagnosed with major depressive disorder reports a
recent 40 pound weight loss within the last 3 months. Which medication should
the PMHNP consider adding to her medication regimen?
A. quetiapine
B. mirtazpine
C. valproic acid
D. paroxetine
B. mirtazpine
Which of the following symptoms is NOT an adverse effect associated with the
acute use of opioids?
A. Sedation
B. Respiratory depression
C. Immunosuppression
D. Itching
C. Immunosuppression
When dosing citalopram for Lynee, a 72 year old patient, the PMHNP understands
to dose at 1/2 dose due to the increased risk of
A. delirium
B. polypharmacy
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, NR 546 Final PRACTICE EXAM Psychopharmacology NEWEST ACTUAL EXAM
C. falls
D. QTc prolongation
D. QTc prolongation
Which of the following medication class is approved for first line treatment for
OCD?
A. Atypical antipsychotics
B. Benzodiazepines
C. MAOI
D. SSRI
D. SSRI
Which SSRI has a mild antihistamine effect?
A. Paroxetine
B. Fluoxetine
C. Citalopram
D. Sertraline
C. Citalopram
Which medication should the PMHNP prescribe for a patient diagnosed with
major depressive disorder but takes multiple medications for other chronic
conditions?
A. Sertraline
B. Escitalopram
C. Buspirone
D. Clonazepam
B. Escitalopram
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