WGU D115 OA Advanced Pathophysiology Exam
WGU D115 OA ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY EXAM NEWEST
ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE 150 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED
A+||BRAND NEW VERSION!!
The FNP is seeing a 10 year old child with complaints of otalgia and muffled
hearing. The mother states the child recently recovered from an upper respiratory
infection. The FNP suspects that this child has:
-Acute otitis media
-Acute otitis externa
-Cholesteatoma
-Chronic otitis media - Correct Answer-Acute otitis media
Feedback: The classic presentation of otitis media is otalgia, muffled hearing,
popping sensation, and a recent history of a cold or flare up of allergic rhinitis.
The FNP understands that a potential complication of tonsillar infections, which is
characterized by severe sore throat, difficulty swallowing, odynophagia, trismus,
and a "hot potato" voice; accompanied by fever, chills and malaise is indicative of:
-Retropharyngeal abscess
-Epiglotitis
-Peritonsillar cellulitis
-Peritonsillar abscess - Correct Answer-Peritonsillar abscess
1|Page
, WGU D115 OA Advanced Pathophysiology Exam
Feedback: Peritonsillar abscess is characterized by severe sore throat, pain or
difficulty swallowing, jaw muscle spasms, and a hot potato voice.
A young adult female patient presents to the clinic with complaints of
nervousness, tremulousness, palpitations, heat intolerance, fatigue, weight loss,
and polyphagia. After a complete history and physical, along with thyroid function
tests, the FNP makes the diagnosis of hyperthyroidism, recognizing that the most
common cause of this condition is:
-Thyroid cancer
-Graves' disease
-Pituitary adenoma
-Postpartum thyroiditis - Correct Answer-Graves' Disease
Feedback: Graves' disease, an autoimmune condition also known as "diffuse
toxic goiter" is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism in this age group.
During an evaluation of a patient with prediabetes, the FNP identifies which
finding in the patient's objective data that is associated with the increasing insulin
resistance?
-Triglycerides > 150mg/dL
-HDL > 40 mg/dL in men and >50 mg/dL in women
-BP < 130/85 mm Hg
-FBS < 110 mg/dL - Correct Answer-Triglycerides > 150mg/dL
Feedback: Improper use of glucose increases the release of free fatty acids
which elevates triglycerides.
2|Page
, WGU D115 OA Advanced Pathophysiology Exam
When prescribing a meal plan for the patient with type 2 diabetes, the FNP tells
the patient that the macronutrient with the most influence on the postprandial
glucose level is:
-Fiber
-Fat
-Protein
-Carbohydrate - Correct Answer-Carbohydrate
Feedback: Carbohydrate is a macronutrient with the greatest impact on the
postprandial glucose levels
Which of the following characteristics applies to type 1 diabetes mellitus?
-Significant hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis result from a lack of insulin.
-This condition is commonly diagnoses on routine examination or work-up for
other health problems.
-Initial response to oral sulfonylureas is usually favorable.
-Insulin resistance is a significant part of the disease. - Correct Answer-Significant
hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis result from a lack of insulin.
Feedback: Type 1 DM is associated with beta cell destruction leading to absolute
insulin deficiency resulting in significant hyperglycemia and potential for
ketoacidosis.
Which of the following characteristics applies to type 2 diabetes mellitus?
3|Page
, WGU D115 OA Advanced Pathophysiology Exam
-Major risk factors are heredity and obesity
-Pear-shaped body type is commonly found
-Exogenous insulin is needed for control of the disease
-Physical activity increases insulin resistance - Correct Answer-Major risk factors
are heredity and obesity
Feedback: Risk factors of type 2 DM include increasing age, obesity, race, and
genetics.
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for endometrial cancer?
-Obesity
-Oral contraceptive use
-Unopposed estrogen use
-Advancing age, greater than 50 years - Correct Answer-Oral contraceptive use
Feedback: Oral contraceptives have been shown to reduce the incidence of
endometrial cancer.
The FNP understands the the most accurate explanation for the diagnosis of
mixed precocious puberty is:
-When a child develops some secondary sex characteristics of the opposite sex
-When a child does not develop any identifiable external sex organs.
-When early puberty occurs due to multiple, integrated causative effects.
4|Page
WGU D115 OA ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY EXAM NEWEST
ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE 150 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED
A+||BRAND NEW VERSION!!
The FNP is seeing a 10 year old child with complaints of otalgia and muffled
hearing. The mother states the child recently recovered from an upper respiratory
infection. The FNP suspects that this child has:
-Acute otitis media
-Acute otitis externa
-Cholesteatoma
-Chronic otitis media - Correct Answer-Acute otitis media
Feedback: The classic presentation of otitis media is otalgia, muffled hearing,
popping sensation, and a recent history of a cold or flare up of allergic rhinitis.
The FNP understands that a potential complication of tonsillar infections, which is
characterized by severe sore throat, difficulty swallowing, odynophagia, trismus,
and a "hot potato" voice; accompanied by fever, chills and malaise is indicative of:
-Retropharyngeal abscess
-Epiglotitis
-Peritonsillar cellulitis
-Peritonsillar abscess - Correct Answer-Peritonsillar abscess
1|Page
, WGU D115 OA Advanced Pathophysiology Exam
Feedback: Peritonsillar abscess is characterized by severe sore throat, pain or
difficulty swallowing, jaw muscle spasms, and a hot potato voice.
A young adult female patient presents to the clinic with complaints of
nervousness, tremulousness, palpitations, heat intolerance, fatigue, weight loss,
and polyphagia. After a complete history and physical, along with thyroid function
tests, the FNP makes the diagnosis of hyperthyroidism, recognizing that the most
common cause of this condition is:
-Thyroid cancer
-Graves' disease
-Pituitary adenoma
-Postpartum thyroiditis - Correct Answer-Graves' Disease
Feedback: Graves' disease, an autoimmune condition also known as "diffuse
toxic goiter" is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism in this age group.
During an evaluation of a patient with prediabetes, the FNP identifies which
finding in the patient's objective data that is associated with the increasing insulin
resistance?
-Triglycerides > 150mg/dL
-HDL > 40 mg/dL in men and >50 mg/dL in women
-BP < 130/85 mm Hg
-FBS < 110 mg/dL - Correct Answer-Triglycerides > 150mg/dL
Feedback: Improper use of glucose increases the release of free fatty acids
which elevates triglycerides.
2|Page
, WGU D115 OA Advanced Pathophysiology Exam
When prescribing a meal plan for the patient with type 2 diabetes, the FNP tells
the patient that the macronutrient with the most influence on the postprandial
glucose level is:
-Fiber
-Fat
-Protein
-Carbohydrate - Correct Answer-Carbohydrate
Feedback: Carbohydrate is a macronutrient with the greatest impact on the
postprandial glucose levels
Which of the following characteristics applies to type 1 diabetes mellitus?
-Significant hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis result from a lack of insulin.
-This condition is commonly diagnoses on routine examination or work-up for
other health problems.
-Initial response to oral sulfonylureas is usually favorable.
-Insulin resistance is a significant part of the disease. - Correct Answer-Significant
hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis result from a lack of insulin.
Feedback: Type 1 DM is associated with beta cell destruction leading to absolute
insulin deficiency resulting in significant hyperglycemia and potential for
ketoacidosis.
Which of the following characteristics applies to type 2 diabetes mellitus?
3|Page
, WGU D115 OA Advanced Pathophysiology Exam
-Major risk factors are heredity and obesity
-Pear-shaped body type is commonly found
-Exogenous insulin is needed for control of the disease
-Physical activity increases insulin resistance - Correct Answer-Major risk factors
are heredity and obesity
Feedback: Risk factors of type 2 DM include increasing age, obesity, race, and
genetics.
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for endometrial cancer?
-Obesity
-Oral contraceptive use
-Unopposed estrogen use
-Advancing age, greater than 50 years - Correct Answer-Oral contraceptive use
Feedback: Oral contraceptives have been shown to reduce the incidence of
endometrial cancer.
The FNP understands the the most accurate explanation for the diagnosis of
mixed precocious puberty is:
-When a child develops some secondary sex characteristics of the opposite sex
-When a child does not develop any identifiable external sex organs.
-When early puberty occurs due to multiple, integrated causative effects.
4|Page
