WGU D282 Objective Assessment – Cloud
Foundations Review | 100% Verified Questions
& Answers | Grade A
Module 1: Cloud Concepts and Architecture
1. What is the essential characteristic of cloud computing that allows users to access
resources from anywhere?
A) Rapid Elasticity
B) Broad Network Access
C) On-Demand Self-Service
D) Resource Pooling
2. Which cloud service model provides access to software applications over the internet?
A) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
B) Platform as a Service (PaaS)
C) Software as a Service (SaaS)
D) Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS)
3. A company wants to avoid the capital expense of building a data center. Which cloud
computing concept does this represent?
A) Scalability
B) Fault Tolerance
C) Capital Expenditure (CapEx) to Operational Expenditure (OpEx)
D) High Availability
4. Which cloud deployment model is used exclusively by a single organization?
A) Public Cloud
B) Hybrid Cloud
C) Private Cloud
D) Community Cloud
5. What does the "Measured Service" characteristic of cloud computing imply?
A) Resources are available to multiple customers.
B) Users can provision resources without human interaction.
C) Resource usage is monitored, controlled, and reported.
D) Resources can be scaled elastically.
,6. Which cloud service model gives the customer the most control over the operating system
and applications?
A) Software as a Service (SaaS)
B) Platform as a Service (PaaS)
C) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
D) Function as a Service (FaaS)
7. A company runs its core, sensitive financial systems in a private cloud but uses a public
cloud for development and testing. What is this model called?
A) Multi-Cloud
B) Public Cloud
C) Hybrid Cloud
D) Community Cloud
8. The ability of a system to automatically scale resources up or down based on demand is
known as:
A) High Availability
B) Agility
C) Rapid Elasticity
D) Resource Pooling
9. Which of the following is a primary disadvantage of using a public cloud?
A) Lack of physical security control
B) High initial capital investment
C) Potential for vendor lock-in
D) Difficulty in scaling resources
10. What is the primary purpose of a Service Level Agreement (SLA) in cloud computing?
A) To define the price of services
B) To legally define the service provider's responsibilities and guarantees
C) To provide technical documentation for APIs
D) To outline the company's security policies
Module 2: Cloud Security, Compliance, and Governance
11. Which AWS service is used to define and enforce fine-grained access policies across AWS
services?
A) AWS IAM (Identity and Access Management)
B) AWS Shield
,C) AWS Config
D) AWS KMS (Key Management Service)
12. The Shared Responsibility Model clarifies that the cloud provider is always responsible for
the security of what?
A) Customer Data
B) Application Code
C) The Cloud Infrastructure
D) IAM User Policies
13. Which term describes the process of ensuring cloud resources comply with corporate
policies and industry regulations?
A) Asset Management
B) Governance
C) Risk Assessment
D) Vulnerability Scanning
14. What is the primary purpose of data encryption?
A) To compress data for faster transfer
B) To make data unreadable without a key
C) To create backups of data
D) To index data for quick searching
15. Which concept involves preparing for and recovering from a disruptive event to maintain
business operations?
A) High Availability
B) Business Continuity and Disaster Recovery (BCDR)
C) Fault Tolerance
D) Elasticity
16. An IAM Policy is a document that formally defines what?
A) A user's password complexity rules
B) One or more permissions for users, groups, or roles
C) The physical location of a data center
D) The cost of each AWS service
17. Which AWS feature provides an extra layer of security by requiring users to provide a code
from a physical or virtual device in addition to a password?
A) Encryption Key
B) Security Group
, C) Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)
D) Access Key
18. The principle of "least privilege" means you should grant users:
A) Full administrator access by default
B) Only the permissions they need to perform their job
C) Access to all services in the free tier
D) Read-only access to everything
19. Which type of encryption is used to protect data while it is being transmitted over a
network?
A) Data at Rest
B) Data in Transit
C) Tokenization
D) Data in Use
20. Which AWS service helps you audit and evaluate the configuration of your AWS resources
against industry best practices?
A) AWS Trusted Advisor
B) AWS CloudTrail
C) AWS Certificate Manager
D) AWS WAF
Module 3: Cloud Technology and Services
21. What is the fundamental compute service in AWS that provides resizable virtual servers?
A) AWS Lambda
B) Amazon EC2 (Elastic Compute Cloud)
C) Amazon S3
D) AWS Elastic Beanstalk
22. Which AWS service provides highly durable and scalable object storage?
A) Amazon EBS (Elastic Block Store)
B) Amazon S3 (Simple Storage Service)
C) Amazon EFS (Elastic File System)
D) AWS Storage Gateway
23. A serverless compute service that runs code in response to events is called:
A) Amazon EC2
Foundations Review | 100% Verified Questions
& Answers | Grade A
Module 1: Cloud Concepts and Architecture
1. What is the essential characteristic of cloud computing that allows users to access
resources from anywhere?
A) Rapid Elasticity
B) Broad Network Access
C) On-Demand Self-Service
D) Resource Pooling
2. Which cloud service model provides access to software applications over the internet?
A) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
B) Platform as a Service (PaaS)
C) Software as a Service (SaaS)
D) Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS)
3. A company wants to avoid the capital expense of building a data center. Which cloud
computing concept does this represent?
A) Scalability
B) Fault Tolerance
C) Capital Expenditure (CapEx) to Operational Expenditure (OpEx)
D) High Availability
4. Which cloud deployment model is used exclusively by a single organization?
A) Public Cloud
B) Hybrid Cloud
C) Private Cloud
D) Community Cloud
5. What does the "Measured Service" characteristic of cloud computing imply?
A) Resources are available to multiple customers.
B) Users can provision resources without human interaction.
C) Resource usage is monitored, controlled, and reported.
D) Resources can be scaled elastically.
,6. Which cloud service model gives the customer the most control over the operating system
and applications?
A) Software as a Service (SaaS)
B) Platform as a Service (PaaS)
C) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
D) Function as a Service (FaaS)
7. A company runs its core, sensitive financial systems in a private cloud but uses a public
cloud for development and testing. What is this model called?
A) Multi-Cloud
B) Public Cloud
C) Hybrid Cloud
D) Community Cloud
8. The ability of a system to automatically scale resources up or down based on demand is
known as:
A) High Availability
B) Agility
C) Rapid Elasticity
D) Resource Pooling
9. Which of the following is a primary disadvantage of using a public cloud?
A) Lack of physical security control
B) High initial capital investment
C) Potential for vendor lock-in
D) Difficulty in scaling resources
10. What is the primary purpose of a Service Level Agreement (SLA) in cloud computing?
A) To define the price of services
B) To legally define the service provider's responsibilities and guarantees
C) To provide technical documentation for APIs
D) To outline the company's security policies
Module 2: Cloud Security, Compliance, and Governance
11. Which AWS service is used to define and enforce fine-grained access policies across AWS
services?
A) AWS IAM (Identity and Access Management)
B) AWS Shield
,C) AWS Config
D) AWS KMS (Key Management Service)
12. The Shared Responsibility Model clarifies that the cloud provider is always responsible for
the security of what?
A) Customer Data
B) Application Code
C) The Cloud Infrastructure
D) IAM User Policies
13. Which term describes the process of ensuring cloud resources comply with corporate
policies and industry regulations?
A) Asset Management
B) Governance
C) Risk Assessment
D) Vulnerability Scanning
14. What is the primary purpose of data encryption?
A) To compress data for faster transfer
B) To make data unreadable without a key
C) To create backups of data
D) To index data for quick searching
15. Which concept involves preparing for and recovering from a disruptive event to maintain
business operations?
A) High Availability
B) Business Continuity and Disaster Recovery (BCDR)
C) Fault Tolerance
D) Elasticity
16. An IAM Policy is a document that formally defines what?
A) A user's password complexity rules
B) One or more permissions for users, groups, or roles
C) The physical location of a data center
D) The cost of each AWS service
17. Which AWS feature provides an extra layer of security by requiring users to provide a code
from a physical or virtual device in addition to a password?
A) Encryption Key
B) Security Group
, C) Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)
D) Access Key
18. The principle of "least privilege" means you should grant users:
A) Full administrator access by default
B) Only the permissions they need to perform their job
C) Access to all services in the free tier
D) Read-only access to everything
19. Which type of encryption is used to protect data while it is being transmitted over a
network?
A) Data at Rest
B) Data in Transit
C) Tokenization
D) Data in Use
20. Which AWS service helps you audit and evaluate the configuration of your AWS resources
against industry best practices?
A) AWS Trusted Advisor
B) AWS CloudTrail
C) AWS Certificate Manager
D) AWS WAF
Module 3: Cloud Technology and Services
21. What is the fundamental compute service in AWS that provides resizable virtual servers?
A) AWS Lambda
B) Amazon EC2 (Elastic Compute Cloud)
C) Amazon S3
D) AWS Elastic Beanstalk
22. Which AWS service provides highly durable and scalable object storage?
A) Amazon EBS (Elastic Block Store)
B) Amazon S3 (Simple Storage Service)
C) Amazon EFS (Elastic File System)
D) AWS Storage Gateway
23. A serverless compute service that runs code in response to events is called:
A) Amazon EC2
