Page 1 of 123
NP EXAM PRACTICE ALL 350 QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED SOLUTIONS LATEST UPDATE
JUST RELEASED THIS YEAR
Question: Doc returns after 4 weeks of starting therapy and reports no noticeable improvement
in anxiety symptoms. He states that he is taking his medication every day as instructed and has
not experienced any adverse effects. The NP considers all of the following options except:
Remain on the current regimen for an additional 4 weeks.
Increase the dose of the SSRI.
Switch to another SSRI agent.
Add buspirone to the current regimen. - CORRECT ANSWER✔✔Remain on the current regimen
for an additional 4 weeks.
Four weeks of SSRI therapy should be sufficient time to see improvement in symptoms with
effective therapy. With an inadequate response, an adjustment to his regimen should be
considered (A).
, Page 2 of 123
Question: Which of the following individuals should not receive the shingles vaccine?
A 61-year-old who had a prior shingles episode 2 years ago
A 57-year-old who reports never having chickenpox as a child
A 62-year-old who currently has shingles
A 53-year-old who is scheduled to begin biologic therapy for rheumatoid arthritis - CORRECT
ANSWER✔✔A 62-year-old who currently has shingles
Shingrix is recommended for all immunocompetent adults 50 years and older regardless of prior
history of shingles (A) or whether the individual had chicken pox previously (B). For those who
are about to initiate biologic therapy, they should get up-to-date on all eligible vaccines prior to
starting biologic therapy as biologic therapy can diminish the immunogenic response elicited
from vaccines (D).
Question: During a routine examination of a healthy 36-year-old male, laboratory results reveal
AST/ALT about 4-fold above the upper limit of normal. Follow-up testing for hepatitis reveals
HBsAg positive and HBsAb negative. He reports never getting the hepatitis B vaccine. These
findings most likely reveal:
, Page 3 of 123
Resolution of a prior hepatitis B infection.
Acute hepatitis B infection.
Chronic hepatitis B infection.
No prior exposure to hepatitis B. - CORRECT ANSWER✔✔Acute hepatitis B infection.
Resolution of a prior hepatitis B infection (or prior vaccination) would be indicated by the
presence of HBsAb (A). Chronic hepatitis B infection is also supported by the presence of HBsAg
though with only minimally elevated levels of AST and ALT (C). The presence of HBsAg suggests
an active hepatitis B infection (D).
Question:A 16-year-old presents with moderate acne consisting of about 25 inflammatory
lesions on her face, neck, and shoulders. First-line treatment can include:
Alcohol-based facial wash.
Oral antimicrobial plus topical salicylic acid.
Topical benzoyl peroxide plus topical antimicrobial.
, Page 4 of 123
Oral isotretinoin. - CORRECT ANSWER✔✔Topical benzoyl peroxide plus topical antimicrobial.
Combination therapy is preferred for moderate acne while monotherapy with topical benzoyl
peroxide or a topical retinoid can be considered for initial therapy of mild acne. Alcohol-based
facial wash is not recommended for the treatment of acne (A). A topical antibacterial cream or
lotion is generally preferred over a systemic antimicrobial as first-line therapy in moderate acne
(B). A topical retinoid is also preferred over topical salicylic acid when used as part of
combination therapy for moderate acne. Oral isotretinoin is generally reserved for severe acne
when prior treatments result in an inadequate response (D).
Question: Lisa is a 48-year-old woman who presents with a 5-day history of painful urination
and mucopurulent vaginal discharge. Suspecting chlamydial infection, which of the following
findings would support this diagnosis?
Large numbers of motile organisms upon microscopic exam
Friable cervix
NP EXAM PRACTICE ALL 350 QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED SOLUTIONS LATEST UPDATE
JUST RELEASED THIS YEAR
Question: Doc returns after 4 weeks of starting therapy and reports no noticeable improvement
in anxiety symptoms. He states that he is taking his medication every day as instructed and has
not experienced any adverse effects. The NP considers all of the following options except:
Remain on the current regimen for an additional 4 weeks.
Increase the dose of the SSRI.
Switch to another SSRI agent.
Add buspirone to the current regimen. - CORRECT ANSWER✔✔Remain on the current regimen
for an additional 4 weeks.
Four weeks of SSRI therapy should be sufficient time to see improvement in symptoms with
effective therapy. With an inadequate response, an adjustment to his regimen should be
considered (A).
, Page 2 of 123
Question: Which of the following individuals should not receive the shingles vaccine?
A 61-year-old who had a prior shingles episode 2 years ago
A 57-year-old who reports never having chickenpox as a child
A 62-year-old who currently has shingles
A 53-year-old who is scheduled to begin biologic therapy for rheumatoid arthritis - CORRECT
ANSWER✔✔A 62-year-old who currently has shingles
Shingrix is recommended for all immunocompetent adults 50 years and older regardless of prior
history of shingles (A) or whether the individual had chicken pox previously (B). For those who
are about to initiate biologic therapy, they should get up-to-date on all eligible vaccines prior to
starting biologic therapy as biologic therapy can diminish the immunogenic response elicited
from vaccines (D).
Question: During a routine examination of a healthy 36-year-old male, laboratory results reveal
AST/ALT about 4-fold above the upper limit of normal. Follow-up testing for hepatitis reveals
HBsAg positive and HBsAb negative. He reports never getting the hepatitis B vaccine. These
findings most likely reveal:
, Page 3 of 123
Resolution of a prior hepatitis B infection.
Acute hepatitis B infection.
Chronic hepatitis B infection.
No prior exposure to hepatitis B. - CORRECT ANSWER✔✔Acute hepatitis B infection.
Resolution of a prior hepatitis B infection (or prior vaccination) would be indicated by the
presence of HBsAb (A). Chronic hepatitis B infection is also supported by the presence of HBsAg
though with only minimally elevated levels of AST and ALT (C). The presence of HBsAg suggests
an active hepatitis B infection (D).
Question:A 16-year-old presents with moderate acne consisting of about 25 inflammatory
lesions on her face, neck, and shoulders. First-line treatment can include:
Alcohol-based facial wash.
Oral antimicrobial plus topical salicylic acid.
Topical benzoyl peroxide plus topical antimicrobial.
, Page 4 of 123
Oral isotretinoin. - CORRECT ANSWER✔✔Topical benzoyl peroxide plus topical antimicrobial.
Combination therapy is preferred for moderate acne while monotherapy with topical benzoyl
peroxide or a topical retinoid can be considered for initial therapy of mild acne. Alcohol-based
facial wash is not recommended for the treatment of acne (A). A topical antibacterial cream or
lotion is generally preferred over a systemic antimicrobial as first-line therapy in moderate acne
(B). A topical retinoid is also preferred over topical salicylic acid when used as part of
combination therapy for moderate acne. Oral isotretinoin is generally reserved for severe acne
when prior treatments result in an inadequate response (D).
Question: Lisa is a 48-year-old woman who presents with a 5-day history of painful urination
and mucopurulent vaginal discharge. Suspecting chlamydial infection, which of the following
findings would support this diagnosis?
Large numbers of motile organisms upon microscopic exam
Friable cervix
