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NURS 6501 Advanced Pathophysiology – Week 6 Midterm Exam (2026 Winter Quarter, Walden University) | 100 Correctly Answered & Verified Questions

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This document provides the fully updated 2026 Winter Quarter Week 6 Midterm Exam for NURS 6501 Advanced Pathophysiology at Walden University, featuring 100 correctly answered and verified questions. It covers all major midterm topics, including cellular alterations, cardiovascular and respiratory disorders, neurological and endocrine pathophysiology, and inflammatory processes. The material offers clear, accurate explanations to support strong exam preparation and mastery of advanced disease mechanisms.

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Nurs 6501 Advanced Pathophysiology Actual
Week 6 Midterm Exam 2026 Winter Quarter
Walden University | 100 Correctly Answered
Questions | Verified Exam Graded A+

Q1. Which cellular adaptation occurs in response to chronic irritation or stress?

A. Hyperplasia
B. Hypertrophy

C. Metaplasia

D. Atrophy
Answer: C

Rationale: Metaplasia is the reversible replacement of one differentiated cell type with
another (e.g., squamous in bronchial epithelium due to smoking). Hyperplasia (A) increases
cell number; hypertrophy (B) increases cell size; atrophy (D) decreases size/number.


Q2. The most common cause of cellular injury is:

A. Hypoxia

B. Toxins

C. Infection

D. Physical agents

Answer: A

Rationale: Hypoxia (ischemia, hypoxemia) is the leading cause of ATP depletion and cell
death. Toxins (B), infection (C), and physical (D) are secondary.



Q3. Free radicals cause cellular damage primarily by:
A. Lipid peroxidation of membranes

,B. Protein synthesis inhibition

C. DNA replication

D. Mitochondrial fusion

Answer: A
Rationale: ROS attack polyunsaturated fatty acids in membranes, causing chain reactions.
Protein (B) secondary; DNA (C) mutation; fusion (D) normal.


Q4. In reversible cell injury, the earliest ultrastructural change is:

A. Plasma membrane blebbing
B. Mitochondrial swelling

C. Nuclear chromatin clumping

D. ER dilation

Answer: A

Rationale: Blebbing reflects cytoskeletal disruption and ion imbalance. Mitochondrial
swelling (B) follows; nuclear (C) later; ER (D) variable.


Q5. Necrosis is characterized by:

A. Cell shrinkage and nuclear fragmentation

B. Cell swelling and membrane rupture

C. Orderly DNA degradation
D. Caspase activation

Answer: B

Rationale: Uncontrolled death with inflammation. Shrinkage/fragmentation (A) apoptosis;
orderly DNA (C) apoptosis; caspases (D) apoptosis.



Q6. The type of necrosis seen in myocardial infarction is:
A. Coagulative
B. Liquefactive

,C. Caseous

D. Fat

Answer: A

Rationale: Preserves tissue architecture due to protein denaturation. Liquefactive (B)
brain/abscess; caseous (C) TB; fat (D) pancreatitis.



Q7. Apoptosis is initiated by:
A. Intrinsic (mitochondrial) and extrinsic (death receptor) pathways

B. Only extrinsic
C. Only intrinsic

D. Lysosomal rupture

Answer: A

Rationale: Both converge on caspases. Lysosomal (D) autophagy/necroptosis.


Q8. The primary mediator of acute inflammation is:

A. Neutrophils

B. Macrophages

C. Lymphocytes

D. Mast cells

Answer: A

Rationale: First responders (6–24 hours). Macrophages (B) chronic; lymphocytes (C)
adaptive; mast (D) immediate.



Q9. The cardinal signs of inflammation include all EXCEPT:
A. Redness (rubor)

B. Swelling (tumor)

C. Pain (dolor)
D. Bradycardia

, Answer: D

Rationale: Rubor, tumor, dolor, calor (heat), functio laesa (loss of function). Bradycardia
(D) not a sign.



Q10. Histamine is released from:

A. Mast cells and basophils

B. Neutrophils
C. Eosinophils

D. Platelets only
Answer: A

Rationale: Preformed mediator causing vasodilation/edema. Others release different
mediators.



Q11. The complement protein that enhances phagocytosis is:

A. C3b

B. C5a
C. C3a

D. C1q

Answer: A

Rationale: Opsonin. C5a (B) chemotaxis; C3a (C) anaphylatoxin; C1q (D) classical
initiation.



Q12. Chronic inflammation is dominated by:

A. Mononuclear cells (macrophages, lymphocytes)

B. Neutrophils

C. Eosinophils
D. Basophils
Answer: A

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