NURS 101 NCLEX Practice Exam 3 (40 Items) - UPDATED | NURS101 NCLEX Practice Exam 3 (40 Items) - Answers and Explanations {A Grade}

NCLEX Practice Exam 3 (40 Items) Question 1 A patient is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of primary hyperparathyroidism. A nurse checking the patient’s lab results would expect which of the following changes in laboratory findings? Elevated serum calcium. Low serum parathyroid hormone (PTH). Elevated serum vitamin D. Low urine calcium. Question 1 Explanation: The parathyroid glands regulate the calcium level in the blood. In hyperparathyroidism, the serum calcium level will be elevated. Option B: Parathyroid hormone levels may be high or normal but not low. Option C: The body will lower the level of vitamin D in an attempt to lower calcium. Option D: Urine calcium may be elevated, with calcium spilling over from elevated serum levels. This may cause renal stones. Question 2 A patient with Addison’s disease asks a nurse for nutrition and diet advice. Which of the following diet modifications is NOT recommended? A diet high in grains. A diet with adequate caloric intake. A high protein diet. A restricted sodium diet. Question 2 Explanation: A patient with Addison’s disease requires normal dietary sodium to prevent excess fluid loss. Adequate caloric intake is recommended with a diet high in protein and complex carbohydrates, including grains. Question 3 A patient with a history of diabetes mellitus is on the second post-operative day following cholecystectomy. She has complained of nausea and isn’t able to eat solid foods. The nurse enters the room to find the patient confused and shaky. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the patient’s symptoms? Anesthesia reaction. Hyperglycemia. Hypoglycemia. Diabetic ketoacidosis. Question 3 Explanation: A post-operative diabetic patient who is unable to eat is likely to be suffering from hypoglycemia. Confusion and shakiness are common symptoms. Option A: An anesthesia reaction would not occur on the second postoperative day. Options B and D: Hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis do not cause confusion and shakiness. Question 4 A nurse assigned to the emergency department evaluates a patient who underwent fiberoptic colonoscopy 18 hours previously. The patient reports increasing abdominal pain, fever, and chills. Which of the following conditions poses the most immediate concern? Bowel perforation Viral gastroenteritis Colon cancer. Diverticulitis Question 4 Explanation: Bowel perforation is the most serious complication of fiberoptic colonoscopy. Important signs include progressive abdominal pain, fever, chills, and tachycardia, which indicate advancing peritonitis. Options B and C: Viral gastroenteritis and colon cancer do not cause these symptoms. Option D: Diverticulitis may cause pain, fever, and chills, but is far less serious than perforation and peritonitis. Question 5 A patient is admitted to the same day surgery unit for liver biopsy. Which of the following laboratory tests assesses coagulation? (Select all that apply) Partial thromboplastin time Prothrombin time Platelet count Hemoglobin Question 5 Explanation: Prothrombin time, partial thromboplastin time, and platelet count are all included in coagulation studies. Option D: The hemoglobin level, though important information prior to an invasive procedure like liver biopsy, does not assess coagulation. Question 6 A nurse is assessing a clinic patient with a diagnosis of hepatitis A. Which of the following is the most likely route of transmission? Sexual contact with an infected partner Contaminated food Blood transfusion Illegal drug use Question 6 Explanation: Hepatitis A is the only type that is transmitted by the fecal-oral route through contaminated food. Options A, C, and D: Hepatitis B, C, and D are transmitted through infected bodily fluids. Question 7 A leukemia patient has a relative who wants to donate blood for transfusion. Which of the following donor medical conditions would prevent this? A history of hepatitis C five years previously. Cholecystitis requiring cholecystectomy one year previously. Asymptomatic diverticulosis. Crohn’s disease in remission. Question 7 Explanation: Hepatitis C is a viral infection transmitted through bodily fluids, such as blood, causing inflammation of the liver. Patients with hepatitis C may not donate blood for transfusion due to the high risk of infection in the recipient. Cholecystitis (gallbladder disease), diverticulosis, and history of Crohn’s disease do not preclude blood donation. - - - - - - - - -- -- - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - Question 39 Explanation: Delayed developmental milestones are characteristic of cerebral palsy, so regular screening and intervention is essential. Because of injury to upper motor neurons, children may have ocular and speech difficulties. Parent support groups help families to share and cope. Physical therapy and other interventions can minimize the extent of the delay in developmental milestones. Question 40 A child has recently been diagnosed with Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy. The parents are receiving genetic counseling prior to planning another pregnancy. Which of the following statements includes the most accurate information? Duchenne’s is an X-linked recessive disorder, so daughters have a 50% chance of being carriers and sons a 50% chance of developing the disease. Duchenne’s is an X-linked recessive disorder, so both daughters and sons have a 50% chance of developing the disease. Each child has a 1 in 4 (25%) chance of developing the disorder. Sons only have a 1 in 4 (25%) chance of developing the disorder. Question 40 Explanation: The recessive Duchenne’s gene is located on one of the two X chromosomes of a female carrier. If her son receives the X bearing the gene he will be affected. Thus, there is a 50% chance of a son being affected. Daughters are not affected, but 50% are carriers because they inherit one copy of the defective gene from the mother. The other X chromosome comes from the father, who cannot be a carrier.