GTD, GTN & Trophoblast – 20 MCQs with Answers & Explanations (Medical Revision Material)
1. Which of the following best describes a complete hydatidiform mole?
A. Triploid karyotype
B. Presence of fetal parts
C. Diffuse trophoblastic hyperplasia
D. Caused by dispermic fertilization of a normal ovum
Answer: C
Explanation: Complete moles show diffuse trophoblastic proliferation. They are usually 46XX,
derived from an empty ovum fertilized by a sperm that duplicates.
2. A partial mole is most commonly associated with which karyotype?
A. 46XX
B. 46XY
C. 69XXX
D. 45X
Answer: C
Explanation: Partial moles are triploid (69XXX/XXY/XYY) due to fertilization of a normal ovum
by two sperms.
3. Which trophoblastic cell type is primarily responsible for invasion of the maternal decidua?
A. Cytotrophoblast
B. Syncytiotrophoblast
C. Intermediate trophoblast
D. Giant trophoblast cell
Answer: C
Explanation: Intermediate trophoblasts (especially EVT—extravillous) mediate decidual and
myometrial invasion.
4. The hallmark histologic finding in a complete mole is:
A. Fetal erythrocytes
B. Circumferential trophoblastic proliferation
, C. Partial villous edema
D. Normal villi with atypia
Answer: B
Explanation: Complete moles show circumferential (diffuse) trophoblastic hyperplasia.
5. Which of the following is most predictive of post-molar GTN?
A. Size of uterus
B. Pre-evacuation hCG > 100,000 IU/L
C. Theca lutein cysts
D. Persistence of hCG after evacuation
Answer: D
Explanation: Rising or plateauing hCG after evacuation is the strongest predictor of persistent
GTN.
6. Which GTN has the highest metastatic potential?
A. Invasive mole
B. PSTT
C. ETT
D. Choriocarcinoma
Answer: D
Explanation: Choriocarcinoma is highly malignant and frequently metastatic (lungs, brain, liver).
7. What is the gold-standard diagnostic tool for GTN?
A. Ultrasound
B. Histology
C. Clinical course + hCG surveillance
D. MRI pelvis
Answer: C
Explanation: GTN is diagnosed clinically using FIGO hCG criteria, not histology.
8. Snowstorm appearance on ultrasound suggests:
1. Which of the following best describes a complete hydatidiform mole?
A. Triploid karyotype
B. Presence of fetal parts
C. Diffuse trophoblastic hyperplasia
D. Caused by dispermic fertilization of a normal ovum
Answer: C
Explanation: Complete moles show diffuse trophoblastic proliferation. They are usually 46XX,
derived from an empty ovum fertilized by a sperm that duplicates.
2. A partial mole is most commonly associated with which karyotype?
A. 46XX
B. 46XY
C. 69XXX
D. 45X
Answer: C
Explanation: Partial moles are triploid (69XXX/XXY/XYY) due to fertilization of a normal ovum
by two sperms.
3. Which trophoblastic cell type is primarily responsible for invasion of the maternal decidua?
A. Cytotrophoblast
B. Syncytiotrophoblast
C. Intermediate trophoblast
D. Giant trophoblast cell
Answer: C
Explanation: Intermediate trophoblasts (especially EVT—extravillous) mediate decidual and
myometrial invasion.
4. The hallmark histologic finding in a complete mole is:
A. Fetal erythrocytes
B. Circumferential trophoblastic proliferation
, C. Partial villous edema
D. Normal villi with atypia
Answer: B
Explanation: Complete moles show circumferential (diffuse) trophoblastic hyperplasia.
5. Which of the following is most predictive of post-molar GTN?
A. Size of uterus
B. Pre-evacuation hCG > 100,000 IU/L
C. Theca lutein cysts
D. Persistence of hCG after evacuation
Answer: D
Explanation: Rising or plateauing hCG after evacuation is the strongest predictor of persistent
GTN.
6. Which GTN has the highest metastatic potential?
A. Invasive mole
B. PSTT
C. ETT
D. Choriocarcinoma
Answer: D
Explanation: Choriocarcinoma is highly malignant and frequently metastatic (lungs, brain, liver).
7. What is the gold-standard diagnostic tool for GTN?
A. Ultrasound
B. Histology
C. Clinical course + hCG surveillance
D. MRI pelvis
Answer: C
Explanation: GTN is diagnosed clinically using FIGO hCG criteria, not histology.
8. Snowstorm appearance on ultrasound suggests:
