RNSG EXIT EXAM Study Guide {UPDATED} – TEST BANK | RNSG EXIT EXAM Study Guide {UPDATED} – A Grade
RNSG EXIT EXAM Study Guide {UPDATED} – Tarrant County College 1. Following discharge teaching, a male client with duodenal ulcer tells the nurse the he will drink plenty of dairy products, such as milk, to help coat and protect his ulcer. What is the best follow-up action by the nurse? • Review with the client the need to avoid foods that are rich in milk and cream 2. A male client with hypertension, who received new antihypertensive prescriptions at his last visit returns to the clinic two weeks later to evaluate his blood pressure (BP). His BP is 158/106 and he admits that he has not been taking the prescribed medication because the drugs make him “feel bad”. In explaining the need for hypertension control, the nurse should stress that an elevated BP places the client at risk for which pathophysiological condition? • Stroke secondary to hemorrhage 3. The nurse observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) positioning a newly admitted client who has a seizure disorder. The client is supine and the UAP is placing soft pillows along the side rails. What action should the nurse implement? • Instruct the UAP to obtain soft blankets to secure to the side rails instead of pillows. 4. An adolescent with major depressive disorder has been taking duloxetine (Cymbalta) for the past 12 days. Which assessment finding requires immediate follow-up? • Describes life without purpose 5. A 60-year-old female client with a positive family history of ovarian cancer has developed an abdominal mass and is being evaluated for possible ovarian cancer. Her Papanicolau (Pap) smear results are negative. What information should the nurse include in the client’s teaching plan? • Further evaluation involving surgery may be needed 6. A client who recently underwear a tracheostomy is being prepared for discharge to home. Which instructions is most important for the nurse to include in the discharge plan? • Teach tracheal suctioning techniques 7. In assessing an adult client with a partial rebreather mask, the nurse notes that the oxygen reservoir bag does not deflate completely during inspiration and the client’s respiratory rate is 14 breaths / minute. What action should the nurse implement? • Document the assessment data • Rational: reservoir bag should not deflate completely during inspiration and the client’s respiratory rate is within normal limits. 8. During shift report, the central electrocardiogram (EKG) monitoring system alarms. Which client alarm should the nurse investigate firs? • Respiratory apnea of 30 seconds 9. During a home visit, the nurse observed an elderly client with diabetes slip and fall. What action should the nurse take first? • Check the client for lacerations or fractures 10. At 0600 while admitting a woman for a schedule repeat cesarean section (C-Section), the client tells the nurse that she drank a cup a coffee at 0400 because she wanted to avoid getting a headache. Which action should the nurse take first? • Inform the anesthesia care provider 11. After placing a stethoscope as seen in the picture, the nurse auscultates S1 and S2 heart sounds. To determine if an S3 heart sound is present, what action should the nurse take first? • Listen with the bell at the same location 12. A 66-year-old woman is retiring and will no longer have a health insurance through her place of employment. Which agency should the client be referred to by the employee health nurse for health insurance needs? • Medicare 13. A client who is taking an oral dose of a tetracycline complains of gastrointestinal upset. What snack should the nurse instruct the client to take with the tetracycline? • Toasted wheat bread and jelly 14. Following a lumbar puncture, a client voices several complaints. What complaint indicated to the nurse that the client is experiencing a complication? • “I have a headache that gets worse when I sit up” • “I am having pain in my lower back when I move my legs” • “My throat hurts when I swallow” • “I feel sick to my stomach and am going to throw up” 15. An elderly client seems confused and reports the onset of nausea, dysuria, and urgency with incontinence. Which action should the nurse implement? • Obtain a clean catch mid-stream specimen 16. The nurse is assisting the mother of a child with phenylketonuria (PKU) to select foods that are in keeping with the child’s dietary restrictions. Which foods are contraindicated for this child? • Foods sweetened with aspartame 17. Before preparing a client for the first surgical case of the day, a part-time scrub nurse asks the circulating nurse if a 3 minute surgical hand scrub is adequate preparation for this client. Which response should the circulating nurse provide? • Direct the nurse to continue the surgical hand scrub for a 5 minute duration 18. Which breakfast selection indicates that the client understands the nurse’s instructions about the dietary management of osteoporosis? • Bagel with jelly and skim milk 19. The charge nurse of a critical care unit is informed at the beginning of the shift that less than the optimal number of registered nurses will be working that shift. In planning assignments, which client should receive the most care hours by a registered nurse (RN)? • An 82-year-old client with Alzheimer’s disease newly-fractures femur who has a Foley catheter and soft wrist restrains applied 20. A mother brings her 6-year-old child, who has just stepped on a rusty nail, to the pediatrician’s office. Upon inspection, the nurse notes that the nail went through the shoe and pierced the bottom of the child’s foot. Which action should the nurse implement first? • Cleanse the foot with soap and water and apply an antibiotic ointment • Provide teaching about the need for a tetanus booster within the next 72 hours. • have the mother check the child's temperature q4h for the next 24 hours • transfer the child to the emergency department to receive a gamma globulin injection 21. The mother of an adolescent tells the clinic nurse, “My son has athlete’s foot, I have been applying triple antibiotic ointment for two days, but there has been no improvement.” What instruction should the nurse provide? • Stop using the ointment and encourage complete drying of the feet and wearing clean socks. 22. A 26-year-old female client is admitted to the hospital for treatment of a simple goiter, and levothyroxine sodium (Synthroid) is prescribed. Which symptoms indicate to the nurse that the prescribed dosage is too high for this client? The client experiences • Bradycardia and constipation • Lethargy and lack of appetite • Muscle cramping and dry, flushed skin • Palpitations and shortness of breath 23. A client with a history of heart failure presents to the clinic with a nausea, vomiting, yellow vision and palpitations. Which finding is most important for the nurse to assess to the client? • Obtain a list of medications taken for cardiac history 24. The healthcare provider prescribes an IV solution of isoproterenol (Isuprel) 1 mg in 250 ml of D5W at 300 mcg/hour. The nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver how many ml/hour? (Enter numeric value only.) • 75 • Rationale: Convert mg to mcg and use the formula D/H x Q. 300 mcg/hour / 1,000 mcg x 250 ml = 3/1 x 25 = 75 ml/hour 25. The pathophysiological mechanism are responsible for ascites related to liver failure? (Select all that apply) • Fluid shifts from intravascular to interstitial area due to decreased serum protein • Increased hydrostatic pressure in portal circulation increases fluid shifts into abdomen • Increased circulating aldosterone levels that increase sodium and water retention 26. The nurse is auscultating a client’s heart sounds. Which description should the nurse use to document this sound? (Please listen to the audio first to select the option that applies) • Murmur • Rationale: A murmur is auscultated as a swishing sound that is associated with the blood turbulence created by the heart or valvular defect. 27. The healthcare provider prescribes celtazidime (Fortax) 35 mg every 8 hours IM for an infant. The 500 mg vial is labeled with the instruction to add 5.3 ml diluent to provide a concentration of 100 mg/ml. How many ml should the nurse administered for each dose? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth) • 0.4 • rationale: 35mg/100mg x 1 = 0.35 = 0.4 ml 28. The nurse notes that a client has been receiving hydromorphone (Dilaudid) every six hours for four days. What assessment is most important for the nurse to complete? • Auscultate the client's bowel sounds • Observe for edema around the ankles • Measure the client’s capillary glucose level • Count the apical and radial pulses simultaneously • Rationale: hydromorphone is a potent opioid analgesic that slows peristalsis and frequently causes constipation, so it is most important to Auscultate the client's bowel sounds 29. A female client is admitted with end stage pulmonary disease is alert, oriented, and complaining of shortness of breath. The client tells the nurse that she wants “no heroic measures” taken if she stops breathing, and she asks the nurse to document this in her medical record. What action should the nurse implement? • Ask the client to discuss “do not resuscitate” with her healthcare provider 30. A client is receiving a full strength continuous enteral tube feeding at 50 ml/hour and has developed diarrhea. The client has a new prescription to change the feeding to half strength. What intervention should the nurse implement? • Add equal amounts of water and feeding to a feeding bag and infuse at 50ml/hour 31. A female client reports that her hair is becoming coarse and breaking off, that the outer part of her eyebrows have disappeared, and that her eyes are all puffy. Which follow-up question is best for the nurse to ask? • Have you noticed any changes in your fingernails? • Rationale: The pattern of reported manifestations is suggestive of hypothyroidism 32. After a third hospitalization 6 months ago, a client is admitted to the hospital with ascites and malnutrition. The client is drowsy but responding to verbal stimuli and reports recently spitting up blood. What assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse? • Capillary refill of 8 seconds • bruises on arms and legs • round and tight abdomen • pitting edema in lower legs 33. After the nurse witnesses a preoperative client sign the surgical consent form, the nurse signs the form as a witness. What are the legal implications of the nurse’s signature on the client’s surgical consent form? (Select all that apply) • The client voluntarily grants permission for the procedure to be done • The client is competent to sign the consent without impairment of judgment • The client understands the risks and benefits associated with the procedure 34. Following surgery, a male client with antisocial personality disorder frequently requests that a specific nurse be assigned to his care and is belligerent when another nurse is assigned. What action should the charge nurse implement? • Advise the client that assignments are not based on clients requests 35. A client with cervical cancer is hospitalized for insertion of a sealed internal cervical radiation implant. While providing care, the nurse finds the radiation implant in the bed. What action should the nurse take? • Place the implant in a lead container using long-handled forceps 36. The client with which type of wound is most likely to need immediate intervention by the nurse? • Laceration • Abrasion • Contusion • Ulceration • Rationale: A laceration is a wound that is produced by the tearing of soft body tissue. This type of wound is often irregular and jagged. A laceration wound is often contaminated with bacteria and debris from whatever object caused the cut. 37. The nurse is planning care for a client admitted with a diagnosis of pheochromocytoma. Which intervention has the highest priority for inclusion in this client’s plan of care? • Monitor blood pressure frequently • Rationale: A pheochromocytoma is a rare, catecholamine-secreting tumor that may precipitate life-threatening hypertension. The tumor is malignant in 10% of cases but may be cured completely by surgical removal. Although pheochromocytoma has classically been associated with 3 syndromes—von Hippel-Lindau (VHL) syndrome, multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2 (MEN 2), and neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1)—there are now 10 genes that have been identified as sites of mutations leading to pheochromocytoma. 38. When caring for a client who has acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), the nurse elevates the head of the bed 30 degrees. What is the reason for this intervention? • To reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm • to promote retraction of the intercostal accessory muscle of respiration • to promote bronchodilation and effective airway clearance • to decrease pressure on the medullary center which stimulates breathing • Rationale: a semi-sitting position is the best position for matching ventilation and perfusion and for decreasing abdominal pressure on the diaphragm, so that the client can maximize breathing. 39. When assessing a mildly obese 35-year-old female client, the nurse is unable to locate the gallbladder when palpating below the liver margin at the lateral border of the rectus abdominal muscle. What is the most likely explanation for failure to locate the gallbladder by palpation? • The client is too obese • Palpating in the wrong abdominal quadrant • Deeper palpation technique is needed • The gallbladder is normal • Rationale: a normal healthy gallbladder is not palpable 40. A woman with an anxiety disorder calls her obstetrician’s office and tells the nurse of increased anxiety since the normal vaginal delivery of her son three weeks ago. Since she is breastfeeding, she stopped taking her antianxiety medications, but thinks she may need to start taking them again because of her increased anxiety. What response is best for the nurse to provide this woman? • describe the transmission of drugs to the infant through breast milk • encourage her to use stress relieving alternatives, such as deep breathing exercises • Inform her that some antianxiety medications are safe to take while breastfeeding • Explain that anxiety is a normal response for the mother of a 3-week-old. • Rationale: there are several antianxiety medications that are not contraindicated for breastfeeding mothers. 41. An older male client with a history of type 1 diabetes has not felt well the past few days and arrives at the clinic with abdominal cramping and vomiting. He is lethargic, moderately, confused, and cannot remember when he took his last dose of insulin or ate last. What action should the nurse implement first? • Start an intravenous (IV) infusion of normal saline • obtain a serum potassium level • administer the client's usual dose of insulin • assess pupillary response to light • Rationale: the nurse should first start an intravenous infusion of normal saline to replace the fluids and electrolytes because the client has been vomiting, and it is unclear when he last ate or took insulin. The symptoms of confusion, lethargy, vomiting, and abdominal cramping are all suggestive of hyperglycemia, which also contributes to diuresis and fluid electrolyte imbalance. 42. A client who received multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope due to a drop in blood pressure to 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse’s decision to hold the client’s scheduled antihypertensive medication? • increased urinary clearance of the multiple medications has produced diuresis and lowered the blood pressure • the antagonistic interaction among the various blood pressure medications has reduced their effectiveness • The additive effect of multiple medications has caused the blood pressure to drop too low • the synergistic effect of the multiple medications has resulted in drug toxicity and resulting hypotension 43. Which client is at the greatest risk for developing delirium? • An adult client who cannot sleep due to constant pain. • an older client who attempted 1 month ago • a young adult who takes antipsychotic medications twice a day • a middle-aged woman who uses a tank for supplemental oxygen 44. Which intervention should the nurse include in a long-term plan of care for a client with Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)? • Reduce risks factors for infection • Administer high flow oxygen during sleep • Limit fluid intake to reduce secretions • Use diaphragmatic breathing to achieve better exhalation 45. Which location should the nurse choose as the best for beginning a screening program for hypothyroidism? • A business and professional women's group. • An African-American senior citizens center • A daycare center in a Hispanic neighborhood • An after-school center for Native-American teens 46. A female client has been taking a high dose of prednisone, a corticosteroid, for several months. After stopping the medication abruptly, the client reports feeling “very tired”. Which nursing intervention is most important for the nurse to implement? • Measure vital signs • Auscultate breath sounds • Palpate the abdomen • Observe the skin for bruising 47. A male client reports the onset of numbness and tingling in his fingers and around his mouth. Which lab is important for the nurse to review before contacting the health care provider? • capillary glucose • urine specific gravity • Serum calcium • white blood cell count 48. What explanation is best for the nurse to provide a client who asks the purpose of using the log-rolling technique for turning? • working together can decrease the risk for back injury • The technique is intended to maintain straight spinal alignment. • Using two or three people increases client safety. • turning instead of pulling reduces the likelihood of skin damage 49. A client receiving chemotherapy has severe neutropenia. Which snack is best for the nurse to recommend to the client? • Baked apples topped with dried raisins 50. Which action should the school nurse take first when conducting a screening for scoliosis? • Inspect for symmetrical shoulder height. 51. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) assigned to obtain client vital signs reports to the charge nurse that a client has a weak pulse with a rate of 44 beat/ minutes. What action should the charge nurse implement? • Assign a practical nurse (LPN) to determine if an apical radial deficit is present 52. After a sudden loss of consciousness, a female client is taken to the ED and initial assessment indicate that her blood glucose level is critically low. Once her glucose level is stabilized, the client reports that was recently diagnosed with anorexia nervosa and is being treated at an outpatient clinic. Which intervention is more important to include in this client’s discharge plan? • Encourage a low-carbohydrate and high-protein diet 53. A client with a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line has a fever. What client assessment is most important for the nurse to perform? • Observe the antecubital fossa for inflammation. 54. The nurse administers an antibiotic to a client with respiratory tract infection. To evaluate the medication’s effectiveness, which laboratory values should the nurse monitor? Select all that apply • White blood cell (WBC) count • Sputum culture and sensitivity 55. A client is admitted to isolation with the diagnosis of active tuberculosis. Which infection control measures should the nurse implement? • Negative pressure environment • contact precautions • droplet precautions • protective environment 56. A school nurse is called to the soccer field because a child has a nose bleed (epistaxis). In what position should the nurse place the child? • Sitting up and leaning forward 57. A young adult who is hit with a baseball bat on the temporal area of the left skull is conscious when admitted to the ED and is transferred to the Neurological Unit to be monitored for signs of closed head injury. Which assessment finding is indicative of a developing epidural hematoma? • Altered consciousness within the first 24 hours after injury. 58. A female client with breast cancer who completed her first chemotherapy treatment today at an out-patient center is preparing for discharge. Which behavior indicates that the client understands her care needs • Rented movies and borrowed books to use while passing time at home 59. Which instruction should the nurse provide a pregnant client who is complaining of heartburn? • Eat small meal throughout the day to avoid a full stomach. 60. A client is admitted to the intensive care unit with diabetes insipidus due to a pituitary gland tumor. Which potential complication should the nurse monitor closely? • Hypokalemia • Ketonuria. • Peripheral edema • Elevated blood pressure • Rational: pituitary tumors that suppress antidiuretic hormone (ADH) result in diabetes insipidus, which causes massive polyuria and serum electrolyte imbalances, including hypokalemia, which can lead to lethal arrhythmias. 61. A female client reports she has not had a bowel movement for 3 days, but now is defecating frequent small amount of liquid stool. Which action should the nurse implement? • Digitally check the client for a fecal impaction 62. After changing to a new brand of laundry detergent, an adult male reports that he has a fine itchy rash. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse? • Bilateral Wheezing. 63. The nurse should teach the parents of a 6 year-old recently diagnosed with asthma that the symptom of acute episode of asthma are due to which physiological response? • Inflammation of the mucous membrane & bronchospasm 64. A 10 year old who has terminal brain cancer asks the nurse, "What will happen to my body when I die?" How should the nurse respond? • "The heart will stop beating & you will stop breathing." 65. The nurse is assessing a 3-month-old infant who had a pylorotomy yesterday. This child should be medicated for pain based on which findings? Select all that apply: • Restlessness • Clenched Fist • Increased pulse rate • Increased respiratory rate. • Increased temperature • Peripheral pallor of the skin 66. The nurse is preparing to administer an oral antibiotic to a client with unilateral weakness, ptosis, mouth drooping and, aspiration pneumonia. What is the priority nursing assessment that should be done before administering this medication? • Determine which side of the body is weak. 67. The nurse who is working on a surgical unit receives change of shift report on a group of clients for the upcoming shift. A client with which condition requires the most immediate attention by the nurse? • Gunshot wound three hours ago with dark drainage of 2 cm noted on the dressing. • Mastectomy 2 days ago with 50 ml bloody drainage noted in the Jackson-pratt drain. • Collapsed lung after a fall 8h ago with 100 ml blood in the chest tube collection container • Abdominal-perineal resection 2 days ago with no drainage on dressing who has fever and chills. • Rationale: the client with an abdominal- perineal resection is at risk for peritonitis and needs to be immediately assessed for other signs and symptoms for sepsis. 68. The nurse is caring for a client who had gastric bypass surgery yesterday. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement during the first 24 postoperative hours? • Measure hourly urinary output. • Rationale: a serious early complications of gastric bypass surgery is an anastomoses leak, often resulting in death. 69. When preparing to discharge a male client who has been hospitalized for an adrenal crisis, the client expresses concern about having another crisis. He tells the nurse that he wants to stay in the hospital a few more days. Which intervention should the nurse implement? • Schedule an appointment for an out-patient psychosocial assessment. 70. An adult female client tells the nurse that though she is afraid her abusive boyfriend might one day kill her, she keeps hoping that he will change. What action should the nurse take first? • Explore client’s readiness to discuss the situation. 71. In caring for a client with Cushing syndrome, which serum laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor? • Lactate • Glucose • Hemoglobin • Creatinine 72. Azithromycin is prescribed for an adolescent female who has lower lobe pneumonia and recurrent chlamydia. What information is most important for the nurse to provide to this client? • Use two forms of contraception while taking this drug. 73. A client in the emergency center demonstrates rapid speech, flight of ideas, and reports sleeping only three hours during the past 48h. Based on these finding, it is most important for the nurse to review the laboratory value for which medication? • Divalproex. • Rationale: divalproex is the first line of treatment for bipolar disorder BPD because it has a high therapeutic index, few side effects, and a rapid onset in controlling symptoms and preventing recurrent episodes of mania and depression. The serum value of divalproex should be determined since the client is exhibiting symptoms of mania, which may indicate non-compliance with the medication regimen. 74. A male client who is admitted to the mental health unit for treatment of bipolar disorder has a slightly slurred speech pattern and an unsteady gait. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider? • Serum lithium level of 1.6 mEq/L or mmol/l (SI) • Rationale: The therapeutic level of Serum lithium is 0.8 to 1.5 mEq/L or mmol/l (SI). Slurred speech and ataxia are sign of lithium toxicity. 75. A client was admitted to the cardiac observation unit 2 hours ago complaining of chest pain. On admission, the client’s EKG showed bradycardia, ST depression, but no ventricular ectopy. The client suddenly reports a sharp increase in pain, telling the nurse, “I feel like an elephant just stepped on my chest” The EKG now shows Q waves and ST segment elevations in the anterior leads. What intervention should the nurse perform? • Administer prescribed morphine sulfate IV and provide oxygen at 2 L/min per nasal cannula. 76. The nurse is developing a teaching program for the community. What population characteristic is most influential when choosing strategies for implementing a teaching plan? • Literacy level 77. A client is being discharged with a prescription for warfarin (Coumadin). What instruction should the nurse provide this client regarding diet? • Eat approximated the same amount of leafy green vegetables daily so the amount of vitamin K consumed is consistent. 78. A client who had a small bowel resection acquired methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) while hospitalized. He treated and released, but is readmitted today because of diarrhea and dehydration. It is most important for the nurse to implement which intervention. • Maintain contact transmission precaution - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - 111. While assigned to care for clients on a surgical unit, the nurse receives a personal phone call about a family emergency that requires the nurse to leave immediately. What action by the nurse is most important? Notify the charge nurse of the situation and of the need and leave immediately. 112. A female client is instructed to do Kegel exercises. What statement indicates to the nurse that the client understands how to perform these exercises? When I urinate I should tighten those muscles and stop the flow of urine for 10 seconds and repeat this 5 to 10 times 113. Which is the highest for carcinogenic shock= pt whom had a traumatic amputation from the groin down, there one of the choice a pt w/ gunshot wound to the chest and abdomen HESI HINT: if Cardiogenic shock exits in the presence of pulmonary edema (ex. from pump failure), position pt to reduce venous return (high fowler’s w/ legs down) in order to reduce further venous return to the left ventricle. 114. When obtaining a health history a male client tells the nurse that, he has become impotent. What part of his health information is likely to be most significant to the sexual dysfunction he is experiencing? The client Was diagnosed with diabetes mellitus 10 years ago 115. Coreg Risk - contraindicated in asthma pt. 116. TURP – assessment for pain- Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) is a type of prostate surgery done to relieve moderate to severe urinary symptoms caused by an enlarged prostate. During TURP, a combined visual and surgical instrument (resectoscope) is inserted through the tip of your penis and into the tube that carries urine from your bladder (urethra). The urethra is surrounded by the prostate. Using the resectoscope, your doctor trims away excess prostate tissue that's blocking urine flow. benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH 117. Drug: Percodia - drug containing aspirin – It also has oxycodone (pain) and aspirin (salicylate) 118. Pathophysiology of Guillian Barré Syndrome!!! - Guillain-Barre Syndrome is a disorder in which your body's immune system attacks the nerves. Weakness and tingling in the extremities are usually the first symptoms. These sensations can quickly spread, eventually paralyzing your whole body. In its most severe form, Guillain-Barre syndrome is a medical emergency requiring hospitalization. The exact cause of Guillain-Barre syndrome is unknown, but it is often preceded by an infectious illness such as a respiratory infection or the stomach flu. There's no known cure for Guillain-Barre syndrome, but several treatments can ease symptoms and reduce the duration of the illness. Most people recover from Guillain-Barre syndrome, though some may experience lingering effects from it, such as weakness, numbness or fatigue. 119. Know which position for a pt that had bone marrow taken out. BM aspiration site: iliac crest. 120. A client admitted to the hospital is suspected of having meningitis. The nurse should plan to prepare the client for which diagnostic test? Lumbar puncture 121. The nurse is performing an intake interview at a prenatal clinic. Which planned activities described by the client who is at 6 weeks gestations will the nurse investigate first? Supervision of the renovation of an old house the family just purchased due to teratogen defect. 122. A client in acute renal failure has a serum potassium level of 6.3 mEq/L. What medication can the nurse expect the healthcare provider to prescribe? Kayexalate retention enema. 123. The nurse is administering oxygento a client with pulmonary edema when a family member asks the nurse why the client needs oxygen. Which pathophysiological mechanism should the nurse explain to his family member? Fluid collects in the chest cavity and keeps the lungs from expanding. 124. During shift report, the nurse learns that a postoperative client has atelectasis. What nursing diagnosis should the nurse expect to include in the clients plan of care? Impaired gas exchange. 125. Fibrocystic Breast = Answer = Caffeine- the disease is painful, lumpy breasts Some women feel that eating chocolate, drinking caffeine, or eating a high-fat diet can cause their symptoms, but there is no clear proof of this, worse right before the menstrual period. Treatment- acetaminophen or ibuprofen, Use heat or ice on the breast, wear a well-fitting bra 126. Triage - put in order: 1. wondering man, 2. woman w/blanket, 3. man holding baby, 4. parents looking for son. 127. A hospitalized client’s bronchoscopy specimen culture result indicates the presence of the Mycobacterium tuberculosis organism. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement? Put the client in a room with negative airflow system. 128. A client with gestational diabetes at 39-weeks gestation is in the second stage of labor. After delivery of the fetal head, the nurse recognizes that shoulder dystocia is occurring. What intervention should the nurse implement first? Assist the client to sharply flex her thighs up against the abdomen 129. While assessing a client with wrist restraints the nurse first slides two fingers under the restraints and then notes that the ties are secured to the side rail using a quick-release tie. What action should the nurse implement? Reposition the restraints ties, securing them to the bed frame 130. While reporting a client’s blood glucose results to the nurse the LPN states that, the glucometer was not calibrated prior to use because the report given by the night shift staff ran late. What action is most important for the nurse to perform? Advise the LPN of the implications involved by not calibrating the glucometer 131. Patient is on radioactive chemotherapy = have the nurse be in the pt room for 30min with cluster care (this was a hard one – just look up nursing care for pt on chemo) 132. Understand the reason for Z track method( it use for IM) – prevent leakage 133. A client from a nursing home is admitted with urinary sepsis and has a single-lumen, peripherally- inserted central catheter (PICC). Four medications are prescribed for 9:00 the nurse is running behind schedule. Which medication should the nurse administer first : (Zosyn) over 30 minutes q8 hours. 134. During a family baseball game, an adult male is hot on the head with a bat, and he is suspected of sustaining an epidural bleed. What Is the most important information for the emergency center nurse to obtain form the client’s spouse, who witnessed his injury? “Was your husband knocked out by the blow” 135. An 86-year-old female client complains to the nurse that she does not like to eat as much as she used to because things taste differently to her now that she is older. The nurse’s response should be based on which fact? A loss of appetitie often occurs in older adults as a result of a decreased sense of smell. 136. A client with a compound fracture of the left ankle is being discharged with a below-the-knee cast. Before being discharged, the nurse should provide the client with what instructions? 137. A 9-month old child with diarrhea, vomiting and malaise= Ask the mother on the onset of symptoms 138. An infant who is jittery and I think it said crying, what should the nurse do firs t= Assess blood glucose. 139. A client in acute renal failure has serum potassium of 7.5mEq/L. based on this finding, the nurse should anticipate implementing which action? Administer a retention enema of Kayexalate 140. A pt with COPD who state that he is using is inhaler right, what should the nurse indicate the pt is not using the inhaler properly= Pt states that he only uses the inhaler when he is having respiratory distress 141. CPR for a pregnant lady= will give Heimlich w/ chest compression HESI HINT: At 20wks gestation & beyond, the gravid uterus should be shifted to the left by placing the women in a 15-30 degree angled, left lateral position or by using a wedge under her right side to tilt her to her left 142. Pyelonephritis symptoms - elevates temperature 143. The nurse observes tha a client has received 250 ml of 0.9% normal saline through the IV line in the last hour. The client is now tachypneic, and has a pulse rate of 120 beats/minute, with a pulse volume of +4. In addition to reporting the assessment findings to the healthcare provider, what action should the nurse implement? Decrease the saline keep-open rate. The nurse should decrease the rate of the IV solution to keep-open rate to avoid further fluid volume overload while awaiting a change in prescription from the healthcare provider. 144. On osteoporosis= weight bearing physical activity 145. Education about DM= to increase knowledge on the disease process and treatment 146. Cerebral palsy – prognosis neurological disorders that appear in infancy or early childhood and permanently affect body movement and muscle coordination. Cerebral palsy doesn’t always cause profound disabilities. While one child with severe cerebral palsy might be unable to walk and need extensive, lifelong care, another with mild cerebral palsy might be only slightly awkward and require no special assistance. Supportive treatments, medications, and surgery can help many individuals improve their motor skills and ability to communicate-symptoms, paraplegia, quadriplegia, hemiplegia, seizure, retardation, learning issues, behavior, bladder bowel bone issues 147. A 60yrs Pt with advance prostate cancer which response indicate that he accept his prognosis or illness = Pt admits that he has support of family & friends – use your judgment on this one) Community primary prevention 148. The risk for metabolic shock syndrome – Toxic Shock Syndrome 149. Side effects of aspirin- (Reye syndrome in kids) Overdose may happen if your kidneys do not work correctly or when you are dehydrated. Signs include ringing in the ears, deafness, hyperactivity, dizziness,drowsiness, seizures, coma, Treatment-fluids, activated charcoal, laxative, IV of potassium, sodium bicarb 150. The nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who is scheduled for a parathyroidectomy. Which disorder in the client’s history is most likely to be impacted by the surgery? Osteoporosis. 151. A female client reports that she drank ¾ of a liter of a solution to cleanse her intestines for a colonoscopy. How many ml of fluid intake should the nurse document? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest whole number.) 152. First convert the liter to ml: 1L × 1000 = 1000ml. Next multiply 1000 by ¾ = 750 ml. 152. The nurse is instructing a client who is newly diagnosed with Addison's disease. Which of the following should the nurse include when discussing the manifestations of this disease with the client? Hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, and hypoglycaemia. 153. A client is admitted to the nursing unit with a possible bowel obstruction. The nurse osculates high-pitched bowel sounds in the upper quadrants of the client’s abdomen. What is the significance of this finding? Provides data about the location of the obstruction. High-pitched bowels sounds may be ausculated above the bowel obstruction early in the obstructive process as peristalsis initially increases, and may help determine the location of the obstruction. 154. Inserting NG tube in client that becomes cyanotic- withdraw NG tube (1 st action) 155. Client in labor, you call the provider and he has slurred words, loud noise in background, and seems intoxicated- you should contact the healthcare provider’s associate, not the medical director 156. After a sexual assault, the nurse collects evidence for 6hrs then should do what- maintain possession of the evidence collection kit at all times 157. A 93 year-old male client is brought to the emergency room by a group of fraternity brothers after a hazing event at the university. The client arrives with a blood alcohol level (BAL) of 3.8 and a Glasgow Coma Scale of 3. Which action should the nurse implement first? Initiate IV access using Lactated Ringer’s solution 1000ml with thiamine 100mg. Hydrating the client and providing thiamine (Vitamin B) to prevent neurological insult from ethanol toxicity are the highest priority interventions. 158. The nurse is preparing to administer vancomycin (Vancocin) 500mg in 200 ml of D6W, and based on the manufacturer’s recommendation, the nurse plans to administer the dosage over 90 minutes. The secondary infusion pump should be set to administer how many ml/hour? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest whole number.) 133. 200ml of the antibiotic is to infuse over 90minutes. 200ml divided by 90minutes/hour equals 133.33=133ml/hour. 159. BNP prescribed diuretic 500 indicates HF 160. Pancreatitis maintain IV: 125 ml/hr Help
Written for
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- Tarrant County College
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- Nursing (RNSG)
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- February 1, 2021
- Number of pages
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- 2020/2021
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exit exam study guide
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rnsg exit exam study guide updated – tarrant county college
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rnsg exit exam study guide
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exit exam study guide updated – tarrant county college
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following discharge teaching