NUR 353 EXAM 2 TESTBANK (2026/2027)
NEWEST QUESTIONS AND DETAILED
CORRECT ANSWERS | A+ GRADE
VERIFIED ANSWERS
A woman with severe preeclampsia is receiving a
magnesium sulfate infusion. The nurse becomes
concerned after assessment when the woman exhibits:
a. a sleepy, sedated affect.
b. a respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min.
c. deep tendon reflexes of 2+.
d. absent ankle clonus. - Correct Answer B (Because
magnesium sulfate is a central nervous system (CNS)
depressant, the client will most likely become sedated
when the infusion is initiated. A respiratory rate of 10
breaths/min indicates that the client is experiencing
respiratory depression (bradypnea) from magnesium
toxicity. Deep tendon reflexes of 2+ are a normal finding.
Absent ankle clonus is a normal finding.)
A woman with severe preeclampsia is being treated with
an IV infusion of magnesium sulfate. This treatment is
considered successful if:
a. blood pressure is reduced to prepregnant baseline.
b. seizures do not occur.
c. deep tendon reflexes become hypotonic.
,d. diuresis reduces fluid retention. - Correct Answer B (A
temporary decrease in blood pressure can occur;
however, this is not the purpose of administering this
medication. Magnesium sulfate is a central nervous
system (CNS) depressant given primarily to prevent
seizures. Hypotonia is a sign of an excessive serum level
of magnesium. It is critical that calcium gluconate be on
hand to counteract the depressant effects of magnesium
toxicity. Diuresis is not an expected outcome of
magnesium sulfate administration.)
A woman with severe preeclampsia has been receiving
magnesium sulfate by IV infusion for 8 hours. The nurse
assesses the woman and documents the following
findings: temperature 37.1° C, pulse rate 96 beats/min,
respiratory rate 24 breaths/min, blood pressure 155/112
mm Hg, 3+ deep tendon reflexes, and no ankle clonus.
The nurse calls the physician, anticipating an order for:
a. hydralazine.
b. magnesium sulfate bolus
c. diazepam.
d. calcium gluconate. - Correct Answer A (Hydralazine is
an antihypertensive commonly used to treat hypertension
in severe preeclampsia. An additional bolus of magnesium
sulfate may be ordered for increasing signs of central
nervous system irritability related to severe preeclampsia
(e.g., clonus) or if eclampsia develops. Diazepam
sometimes is used to stop or shorten eclamptic seizures.
Calcium gluconate is used as the antidote for magnesium
,sulfate toxicity. The client is not currently displaying any
signs or symptoms of magnesium toxicity.)
The most prevalent clinical manifestation of abruptio
placentae (as opposed to placenta previa) is:
a. bleeding.
b. intense abdominal pain.
c. uterine activity.
d. cramping. - Correct Answer B (Bleeding may be
present in varying degrees for both placental conditions.
Pain is absent with placenta previa and may be agonizing
with abruptio placentae. Uterine activity may be present
with both placental conditions. Cramping is a form of
uterine activity that may be present in both placental
conditions.)
A woman at 39 weeks of gestation with a history of
preeclampsia is admitted to the labor and birth unit. She
suddenly experiences increased contraction frequency of
every 1 to 2 minutes; dark red vaginal bleeding; and a
tense, painful abdomen. The nurse suspects the onset of:
a. eclamptic seizure.
b. rupture of the uterus.
c. placenta previa.
d. placental abruption. - Correct Answer D (Eclamptic
seizures are evidenced by the presence of generalized
tonic-clonic convulsions. Uterine rupture presents as
hypotonic uterine activity, signs of hypovolemia, and in
many cases the absence of pain. Placenta previa presents
, with bright red, painless vaginal bleeding. Uterine
tenderness in the presence of increasing tone may be the
earliest finding of premature separation of the placenta
(abruptio placentae or placental abruption). Women with
hypertension are at increased risk for an abruption.)
Signs of a threatened abortion (miscarriage) are noted in a
woman at 8 weeks of gestation. What is an appropriate
management approach for this type of abortion?
a. Prepare the woman for a dilation and curettage (D&C).
b. Place the woman on bed rest for at least 1 week and
reevaluate.
c. Prepare the woman for an ultrasound and blood work.
d. Comfort the woman by telling her that if she loses this
baby, she may attempt to get pregnant again in 1 month. -
Correct Answer C (D&C is not considered until signs of
the progress to an inevitable abortion are noted or the
contents are expelled and incomplete. Bed rest is
recommended for 48 hours initially. Repetitive transvaginal
ultrasounds and measurement of human chorionic
gonadotropin (hCG) and progesterone levels may be
performed to determine if the fetus is alive and within the
uterus. If the pregnancy is lost, the woman should be
guided through the grieving process. Telling the client that
she can get pregnant again soon is not a therapeutic
response because it discounts the importance of this
pregnancy.)
NEWEST QUESTIONS AND DETAILED
CORRECT ANSWERS | A+ GRADE
VERIFIED ANSWERS
A woman with severe preeclampsia is receiving a
magnesium sulfate infusion. The nurse becomes
concerned after assessment when the woman exhibits:
a. a sleepy, sedated affect.
b. a respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min.
c. deep tendon reflexes of 2+.
d. absent ankle clonus. - Correct Answer B (Because
magnesium sulfate is a central nervous system (CNS)
depressant, the client will most likely become sedated
when the infusion is initiated. A respiratory rate of 10
breaths/min indicates that the client is experiencing
respiratory depression (bradypnea) from magnesium
toxicity. Deep tendon reflexes of 2+ are a normal finding.
Absent ankle clonus is a normal finding.)
A woman with severe preeclampsia is being treated with
an IV infusion of magnesium sulfate. This treatment is
considered successful if:
a. blood pressure is reduced to prepregnant baseline.
b. seizures do not occur.
c. deep tendon reflexes become hypotonic.
,d. diuresis reduces fluid retention. - Correct Answer B (A
temporary decrease in blood pressure can occur;
however, this is not the purpose of administering this
medication. Magnesium sulfate is a central nervous
system (CNS) depressant given primarily to prevent
seizures. Hypotonia is a sign of an excessive serum level
of magnesium. It is critical that calcium gluconate be on
hand to counteract the depressant effects of magnesium
toxicity. Diuresis is not an expected outcome of
magnesium sulfate administration.)
A woman with severe preeclampsia has been receiving
magnesium sulfate by IV infusion for 8 hours. The nurse
assesses the woman and documents the following
findings: temperature 37.1° C, pulse rate 96 beats/min,
respiratory rate 24 breaths/min, blood pressure 155/112
mm Hg, 3+ deep tendon reflexes, and no ankle clonus.
The nurse calls the physician, anticipating an order for:
a. hydralazine.
b. magnesium sulfate bolus
c. diazepam.
d. calcium gluconate. - Correct Answer A (Hydralazine is
an antihypertensive commonly used to treat hypertension
in severe preeclampsia. An additional bolus of magnesium
sulfate may be ordered for increasing signs of central
nervous system irritability related to severe preeclampsia
(e.g., clonus) or if eclampsia develops. Diazepam
sometimes is used to stop or shorten eclamptic seizures.
Calcium gluconate is used as the antidote for magnesium
,sulfate toxicity. The client is not currently displaying any
signs or symptoms of magnesium toxicity.)
The most prevalent clinical manifestation of abruptio
placentae (as opposed to placenta previa) is:
a. bleeding.
b. intense abdominal pain.
c. uterine activity.
d. cramping. - Correct Answer B (Bleeding may be
present in varying degrees for both placental conditions.
Pain is absent with placenta previa and may be agonizing
with abruptio placentae. Uterine activity may be present
with both placental conditions. Cramping is a form of
uterine activity that may be present in both placental
conditions.)
A woman at 39 weeks of gestation with a history of
preeclampsia is admitted to the labor and birth unit. She
suddenly experiences increased contraction frequency of
every 1 to 2 minutes; dark red vaginal bleeding; and a
tense, painful abdomen. The nurse suspects the onset of:
a. eclamptic seizure.
b. rupture of the uterus.
c. placenta previa.
d. placental abruption. - Correct Answer D (Eclamptic
seizures are evidenced by the presence of generalized
tonic-clonic convulsions. Uterine rupture presents as
hypotonic uterine activity, signs of hypovolemia, and in
many cases the absence of pain. Placenta previa presents
, with bright red, painless vaginal bleeding. Uterine
tenderness in the presence of increasing tone may be the
earliest finding of premature separation of the placenta
(abruptio placentae or placental abruption). Women with
hypertension are at increased risk for an abruption.)
Signs of a threatened abortion (miscarriage) are noted in a
woman at 8 weeks of gestation. What is an appropriate
management approach for this type of abortion?
a. Prepare the woman for a dilation and curettage (D&C).
b. Place the woman on bed rest for at least 1 week and
reevaluate.
c. Prepare the woman for an ultrasound and blood work.
d. Comfort the woman by telling her that if she loses this
baby, she may attempt to get pregnant again in 1 month. -
Correct Answer C (D&C is not considered until signs of
the progress to an inevitable abortion are noted or the
contents are expelled and incomplete. Bed rest is
recommended for 48 hours initially. Repetitive transvaginal
ultrasounds and measurement of human chorionic
gonadotropin (hCG) and progesterone levels may be
performed to determine if the fetus is alive and within the
uterus. If the pregnancy is lost, the woman should be
guided through the grieving process. Telling the client that
she can get pregnant again soon is not a therapeutic
response because it discounts the importance of this
pregnancy.)
