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NSG 6340 Predictor Study Guide: Comprehensive Q&A (2025/2026 Syllabus)

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NSG 6340 Predictor Study Guide: Comprehensive Q&A (2025/2026 Syllabus) Instructions: Use this guide to assess your knowledge across the core domains of the Adult-Gerontology Acute Care Nurse Practitioner (AGACNP) curriculum. Each answer is prefixed with ANSWER for clarity. Section 1: Cardiology & ECG Interpretation 1. A 68-year-old patient with a history of HFrEF (LVEF 30%) presents with acute dyspnea, bibasilar crackles, JVD, and an S3 gallop. Chest X-ray shows pulmonary edema. What is the first-line intravenous medication for acute decompensated heart failure in this scenario? ANSWER Intravenous furosemide is the first-line agent for rapid diuresis and symptom relief in acute decompensated heart failure with volume overload. 2. A patient's ECG shows a rhythm that is irregularly irregular, with no discernible P waves, and a variable ventricular rate around 110 bpm. What is the most likely diagnosis and the immediate primary goal of treatment? ANSWER The diagnosis is Atrial Fibrillation with Rapid Ventricular Response. The immediate primary goal is rate control using a beta-blocker (e.g., metoprolol) or a nondihydropyridine calcium channel blocker (e.g., diltiazem), provided the patient is hemodynamically stable. 3. A 55-year-old male presents with sudden, tearing, radiating back pain and a blood pressure of 180/100 in the right arm and 140/80 in the left arm. What is the critical diagnosis you must rule out? ANSWER Aortic Dissection (likely Stanford Type B). This is a medical emergency requiring immediate CT angiography, blood pressure control with IV beta-blockers (e.g., labetalol), and surgical consultation. 4. What is the first-line, long-term anticoagulant for a patient with non-valvular atrial fibrillation and a CHA₂DS₂-VASc score of 4? ANSWER A Direct Oral Anticoagulant (DOAC) such as apixaban, rivaroxaban, or dabigatran is preferred over warfarin due to a better safety profile and fewer drug interactions. 5. A patient with chest pain has an ECG showing ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. What area of the heart is most likely affected? ANSWER The inferior wall of the left ventricle, typically supplied by the Right Coronary Artery (RCA). 6. What is the initial dual antiplatelet therapy (DAPT) regimen for a patient after percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) with stent placement? ANSWER Aspirin 81 mg daily indefinitely and a P2Y12 inhibitor (e.g., Clopidogrel, Prasugrel, or Ticagrelor) for a duration typically between 6-12 months, depending on the stent type and patient risk. 7. A patient with suspected NSTEMI has a troponin I level of 0.08 ng/mL (normal 0.04). What is the next step in management? ANSWER Admit the patient to a monitored bed, initiate DAPT, anticoagulation, and serial troponin measurements. Risk stratification with a tool like the TIMI score is essential. 8. What is the target LDL-C for a patient with established atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease (ASCVD)? ANSWER For high-risk secondary prevention, the target is an LDL-C reduction of ≥50% from baseline and an LDL-C level 55 mg/dL. A high-intensity statin (e.g., atorvastatin 40-80 mg) is first-line. 9. Describe the management of symptomatic bradycardia (HR 38, BP 88/50) with confusion. ANSWER This is a medical emergency. Administer Atropine 0.5 mg IV as first-line. If ineffective, prepare for Transcutaneous Pacing (TCP) and consult Cardiology for possible transvenous pacemaker placement. 10. What is the most common side effect of Amiodarone that requires long-term monitoring? ANSWER Pulmonary toxicity (interstitial pneumonitis) is the most serious. Other key monitoring includes thyroid function tests (can cause hypo/hyperthyroidism), LFTs, and ocular exams

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NSG 6340 Predictor
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NSG 6340 Predictor

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NSG 6340 Predictor Study Guide: Comprehensive Q&A
(2025/2026 Syllabus)
Instructions: Use this guide to assess your knowledge across the core domains of the
Adult-Gerontology Acute Care Nurse Practitioner (AGACNP) curriculum. Each answer is
prefixed with ANSWER ✓ for clarity.

Section 1: Cardiology & ECG Interpretation

1. A 68-year-old patient with a history of HFrEF (LVEF 30%) presents with acute
dyspnea, bibasilar crackles, JVD, and an S3 gallop. Chest X-ray shows pulmonary
edema. What is the first-line intravenous medication for acute decompensated
heart failure in this scenario?
ANSWER ✓ Intravenous furosemide is the first-line agent for rapid diuresis and
symptom relief in acute decompensated heart failure with volume overload.

2. A patient's ECG shows a rhythm that is irregularly irregular, with no discernible
P waves, and a variable ventricular rate around 110 bpm. What is the most likely
diagnosis and the immediate primary goal of treatment?
ANSWER ✓ The diagnosis is Atrial Fibrillation with Rapid Ventricular Response. The
immediate primary goal is rate control using a beta-blocker (e.g., metoprolol) or a non-
dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker (e.g., diltiazem), provided the patient is
hemodynamically stable.

3. A 55-year-old male presents with sudden, tearing, radiating back pain and a
blood pressure of 180/100 in the right arm and 140/80 in the left arm. What is the
critical diagnosis you must rule out?
ANSWER ✓ Aortic Dissection (likely Stanford Type B). This is a medical emergency
requiring immediate CT angiography, blood pressure control with IV beta-blockers (e.g.,
labetalol), and surgical consultation.

4. What is the first-line, long-term anticoagulant for a patient with non-valvular
atrial fibrillation and a CHA₂DS₂-VASc score of 4?
ANSWER ✓ A Direct Oral Anticoagulant (DOAC) such as apixaban, rivaroxaban, or
dabigatran is preferred over warfarin due to a better safety profile and fewer drug
interactions.

5. A patient with chest pain has an ECG showing ST-segment elevation in leads II,
III, and aVF. What area of the heart is most likely affected?

, ANSWER ✓ The inferior wall of the left ventricle, typically supplied by the Right Coronary
Artery (RCA).

6. What is the initial dual antiplatelet therapy (DAPT) regimen for a patient after
percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) with stent placement?
ANSWER ✓ Aspirin 81 mg daily indefinitely and a P2Y12 inhibitor (e.g., Clopidogrel,
Prasugrel, or Ticagrelor) for a duration typically between 6-12 months, depending on
the stent type and patient risk.

7. A patient with suspected NSTEMI has a troponin I level of 0.08 ng/mL (normal
<0.04). What is the next step in management?
ANSWER ✓ Admit the patient to a monitored bed, initiate DAPT, anticoagulation, and
serial troponin measurements. Risk stratification with a tool like the TIMI score is
essential.

8. What is the target LDL-C for a patient with established atherosclerotic
cardiovascular disease (ASCVD)?
ANSWER ✓ For high-risk secondary prevention, the target is an LDL-C reduction of
≥50% from baseline and an LDL-C level <55 mg/dL. A high-intensity statin (e.g.,
atorvastatin 40-80 mg) is first-line.

9. Describe the management of symptomatic bradycardia (HR 38, BP 88/50) with
confusion.
ANSWER ✓ This is a medical emergency. Administer Atropine 0.5 mg IV as first-line. If
ineffective, prepare for Transcutaneous Pacing (TCP) and consult Cardiology for possible
transvenous pacemaker placement.

10. What is the most common side effect of Amiodarone that requires long-term
monitoring?
ANSWER ✓ Pulmonary toxicity (interstitial pneumonitis) is the most serious. Other key
monitoring includes thyroid function tests (can cause hypo/hyperthyroidism), LFTs, and
ocular exams.




Section 2: Pulmonology & Critical Care

11. A patient with COPD on home O2 presents with increased dyspnea and
purulent sputum. What is the first-line treatment for an acute exacerbation of
COPD (AECOPHD)?

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