NURS 8020C Advanced Health Assessment
Final – UC — Master Review & Preparation
Guide 2025/2026 <Latest Version>
Domain 1: Health History & Communication (Questions 1-10)
1. The primary purpose of the "review of systems" (ROS) in a health history is to:
a) Confirm the physician's initial diagnosis.
b) Provide a complete list of the patient's current medications.
c) Identify any health problems that may have been overlooked in the HPI. ✓
d) Document the patient's family medical history in detail.
2. When a patient presents with multiple, vague symptoms, the most effective
communication technique to clarify the chronology is to:
a) Use direct, closed-ended questions.
b) Ask the patient to complete a written questionnaire.
c) Use summarizing and verbal validation. ✓
d) Focus on the most recent symptom first.
3. A patient states, "I've been feeling really down lately." The best response from the nurse
practitioner to facilitate a more detailed description is:
a) "You should consider seeing a therapist."
b) "Tell me more about what 'feeling down' means for you." ✓
c) "How long has this been going on?"
d) "Are you taking any medication for that?"
4. Which component of the health history is considered the most critical for identifying the
patient's chief concern?
a) Past Medical History (PMH)
b) Family History (FH)
c) History of Present Illness (HPI) ✓
d) Social History (SH)
5. When assessing a patient's reliability as a historian, the NP should consider all of the
following EXCEPT:
a) The patient's age and developmental level.
b) The consistency of the patient's story.
,c) The patient's willingness to share information.
d) The patient's agreement with the NP's preliminary diagnosis. ✓
6. The "OLDCARTS" mnemonic is primarily used to assess which part of the health history?
a) Social History (SH)
b) Review of Systems (ROS)
c) History of Present Illness (HPI) ✓
d) Past Medical History (PMH)
7. When interviewing an adolescent patient, it is best practice to:
a) Interview the parent alone first to get the full story.
b) Spend part of the interview time alone with the adolescent. ✓
c) Avoid sensitive topics to maintain trust.
d) Rely primarily on the parent for the medical history.
8. A key difference between a comprehensive health history and a focused or episodic history
is the:
a) Depth of the History of Present Illness.
b) Inclusion of the Review of Systems and Past Medical History for a complete picture. ✓
c) Use of open-ended questions.
d) Documentation of vital signs.
9. Which statement best reflects a culturally competent assessment approach?
a) "I will treat every patient exactly the same to ensure fairness."
b) "I will ask about the patient's health beliefs and practices that might influence care." ✓
c) "I will rely on my knowledge of their ethnic group to guide my questions."
d) "I will avoid discussing culture as it is not relevant to physical health."
10. The "CAGE" questionnaire is a validated screening tool used to assess for problems related
to:
a) Geriatric depression.
b) Tobacco use.
c) Alcohol use. ✓
d) Exercise tolerance.
Domain 2: Physical Assessment & Techniques (Questions 11-30)
11. The correct order of the physical assessment techniques for the abdomen is:
a) Percussion, Palpation, Inspection, Auscultation
,b) Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation ✓
c) Palpation, Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion
d) Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation
12. When using an otoscope to examine an adult's ear, the pinna should be pulled:
a) Up and back
b) Down and back
c) Up and forward
d) Up and back ✓
13. To best hear low-pitched heart sounds, such as an S3 gallop, the nurse practitioner should
use the:
a) Diaphragm of the stethoscope, with firm pressure.
b) Bell of the stethoscope, with light pressure. ✓
c) Diaphragm of the stethoscope, with light pressure.
d) Bell of the stethoscope, with firm pressure.
14. A pitting edema assessment grade of +2 indicates:
a) A barely detectable pit.
b) A deep pit (>1 inch) with persistent swelling.
c) A moderate pit (6 mm, 10-15 seconds). ✓
d) A deep pit that remains for over 2 minutes.
15. During a cardiovascular exam, the point of maximal impulse (PMI) is typically located in
the:
a) 2nd left intercostal space.
b) 5th left intercostal space, midclavicular line. ✓
c) 5th right intercostal space, midclavicular line.
d) Left lower sternal border.
16. The Snellen chart is used to assess:
a) Hearing acuity.
b) Visual acuity. ✓
c) Color vision.
d) Peripheral vision.
17. To assess cranial nerve VIII (Acoustic), the nurse practitioner should:
a) Test for facial symmetry and smile.
b) Check for gag reflex and uvula rise.
, c) Perform the whisper test or Rinne/Weber tests. ✓
d) Assess shoulder shrug and head turn.
18. The four components of a cardiovascular physical assessment are:
a) Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation ✓
b) Inspection, Palpation, Auscultation, EKG
c) Blood pressure, Heart rate, Respiration, Temperature
d) Carotid assessment, Jugular venous distention, Heart sounds, Peripheral pulses
19. When percussing the lung fields, a hyperresonant sound is indicative of:
a) Lobar pneumonia.
b) Pleural effusion.
c) Increased air, as in emphysema or pneumothorax. ✓
d) A solid mass or tumor.
20. To assess for patency of the radial and ulnar arteries, the nurse practitioner should
perform the:
a) Babinski test.
b) Allen test. ✓
c) Phalen maneuver.
d) Tinel test.
21. The dermatome level commonly associated with the nipple line is:
a) C7
b) T4 ✓
c) T10
d) L4
22. A positive Babinski sign in an adult is characterized by:
a) Flexion of the toes.
b) Fanning and dorsiflexion of the great toe. ✓
c) Inversion of the foot.
d) No response to plantar stimulation.
23. To test the function of Cranial Nerve III (Oculomotor), the NP should:
a) Assess visual fields.
b) Check for pupil constriction and extraocular movements. ✓
c) Test the corneal reflex.
d) Assess jaw strength.
Final – UC — Master Review & Preparation
Guide 2025/2026 <Latest Version>
Domain 1: Health History & Communication (Questions 1-10)
1. The primary purpose of the "review of systems" (ROS) in a health history is to:
a) Confirm the physician's initial diagnosis.
b) Provide a complete list of the patient's current medications.
c) Identify any health problems that may have been overlooked in the HPI. ✓
d) Document the patient's family medical history in detail.
2. When a patient presents with multiple, vague symptoms, the most effective
communication technique to clarify the chronology is to:
a) Use direct, closed-ended questions.
b) Ask the patient to complete a written questionnaire.
c) Use summarizing and verbal validation. ✓
d) Focus on the most recent symptom first.
3. A patient states, "I've been feeling really down lately." The best response from the nurse
practitioner to facilitate a more detailed description is:
a) "You should consider seeing a therapist."
b) "Tell me more about what 'feeling down' means for you." ✓
c) "How long has this been going on?"
d) "Are you taking any medication for that?"
4. Which component of the health history is considered the most critical for identifying the
patient's chief concern?
a) Past Medical History (PMH)
b) Family History (FH)
c) History of Present Illness (HPI) ✓
d) Social History (SH)
5. When assessing a patient's reliability as a historian, the NP should consider all of the
following EXCEPT:
a) The patient's age and developmental level.
b) The consistency of the patient's story.
,c) The patient's willingness to share information.
d) The patient's agreement with the NP's preliminary diagnosis. ✓
6. The "OLDCARTS" mnemonic is primarily used to assess which part of the health history?
a) Social History (SH)
b) Review of Systems (ROS)
c) History of Present Illness (HPI) ✓
d) Past Medical History (PMH)
7. When interviewing an adolescent patient, it is best practice to:
a) Interview the parent alone first to get the full story.
b) Spend part of the interview time alone with the adolescent. ✓
c) Avoid sensitive topics to maintain trust.
d) Rely primarily on the parent for the medical history.
8. A key difference between a comprehensive health history and a focused or episodic history
is the:
a) Depth of the History of Present Illness.
b) Inclusion of the Review of Systems and Past Medical History for a complete picture. ✓
c) Use of open-ended questions.
d) Documentation of vital signs.
9. Which statement best reflects a culturally competent assessment approach?
a) "I will treat every patient exactly the same to ensure fairness."
b) "I will ask about the patient's health beliefs and practices that might influence care." ✓
c) "I will rely on my knowledge of their ethnic group to guide my questions."
d) "I will avoid discussing culture as it is not relevant to physical health."
10. The "CAGE" questionnaire is a validated screening tool used to assess for problems related
to:
a) Geriatric depression.
b) Tobacco use.
c) Alcohol use. ✓
d) Exercise tolerance.
Domain 2: Physical Assessment & Techniques (Questions 11-30)
11. The correct order of the physical assessment techniques for the abdomen is:
a) Percussion, Palpation, Inspection, Auscultation
,b) Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation ✓
c) Palpation, Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion
d) Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation
12. When using an otoscope to examine an adult's ear, the pinna should be pulled:
a) Up and back
b) Down and back
c) Up and forward
d) Up and back ✓
13. To best hear low-pitched heart sounds, such as an S3 gallop, the nurse practitioner should
use the:
a) Diaphragm of the stethoscope, with firm pressure.
b) Bell of the stethoscope, with light pressure. ✓
c) Diaphragm of the stethoscope, with light pressure.
d) Bell of the stethoscope, with firm pressure.
14. A pitting edema assessment grade of +2 indicates:
a) A barely detectable pit.
b) A deep pit (>1 inch) with persistent swelling.
c) A moderate pit (6 mm, 10-15 seconds). ✓
d) A deep pit that remains for over 2 minutes.
15. During a cardiovascular exam, the point of maximal impulse (PMI) is typically located in
the:
a) 2nd left intercostal space.
b) 5th left intercostal space, midclavicular line. ✓
c) 5th right intercostal space, midclavicular line.
d) Left lower sternal border.
16. The Snellen chart is used to assess:
a) Hearing acuity.
b) Visual acuity. ✓
c) Color vision.
d) Peripheral vision.
17. To assess cranial nerve VIII (Acoustic), the nurse practitioner should:
a) Test for facial symmetry and smile.
b) Check for gag reflex and uvula rise.
, c) Perform the whisper test or Rinne/Weber tests. ✓
d) Assess shoulder shrug and head turn.
18. The four components of a cardiovascular physical assessment are:
a) Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation ✓
b) Inspection, Palpation, Auscultation, EKG
c) Blood pressure, Heart rate, Respiration, Temperature
d) Carotid assessment, Jugular venous distention, Heart sounds, Peripheral pulses
19. When percussing the lung fields, a hyperresonant sound is indicative of:
a) Lobar pneumonia.
b) Pleural effusion.
c) Increased air, as in emphysema or pneumothorax. ✓
d) A solid mass or tumor.
20. To assess for patency of the radial and ulnar arteries, the nurse practitioner should
perform the:
a) Babinski test.
b) Allen test. ✓
c) Phalen maneuver.
d) Tinel test.
21. The dermatome level commonly associated with the nipple line is:
a) C7
b) T4 ✓
c) T10
d) L4
22. A positive Babinski sign in an adult is characterized by:
a) Flexion of the toes.
b) Fanning and dorsiflexion of the great toe. ✓
c) Inversion of the foot.
d) No response to plantar stimulation.
23. To test the function of Cranial Nerve III (Oculomotor), the NP should:
a) Assess visual fields.
b) Check for pupil constriction and extraocular movements. ✓
c) Test the corneal reflex.
d) Assess jaw strength.
