LNHA NAB Licensing Exam Prep – Full Study
Guide & Review
Resident Care & Quality of Life (Domain 1)
1. What is the primary purpose of the Resident Assessment Instrument (RAI)?
A) To determine the facility's billing rates.
B) To provide a comprehensive, standardized assessment of a resident's needs.
C) To document employee performance issues.
D) To order medical supplies.
Answer: B) To provide a comprehensive, standardized assessment of a resident's needs. ✓
2. The Minimum Data Set (MDS) is a key component of what larger process?
A) The employee onboarding process.
B) The Resident Assessment Instrument (RAI).
C) The annual budget process.
D) The facility marketing plan.
Answer: B) The Resident Assessment Instrument (RAI). ✓
3. What is the primary goal of a person-centered care model?
A) To streamline staff workflows for efficiency.
B) To make care delivery easier for the nursing staff.
C) To focus on the resident's individual preferences, values, and needs.
D) To reduce the cost of care supplies.
Answer: C) To focus on the resident's individual preferences, values, and needs. ✓
4. A resident has the right to be free from physical or chemical restraints used for purposes of
discipline or staff convenience. This is a core principle of:
A) OBRA '87.
B) HIPAA.
C) OSHA.
D) ERISA.
Answer: A) OBRA '87. ✓
5. What committee is responsible for reviewing the use of psychoactive medications and
potential restraints in the facility?
A) The Quality Assurance and Performance Improvement (QAPI) committee.
B) The Pharmaceutical Services committee.
C) The Infection Control committee.
,D) The Patient Safety committee.
Answer: A) The Quality Assurance and Performance Improvement (QAPI) committee. ✓
6. The "Comprehensive Care Plan" for a resident must be developed within how many days of
admission?
A) 7 days
B) 14 days
C) 21 days
D) 30 days
Answer: A) 7 days ✓
7. Which of the following is NOT a required member of the Interdisciplinary Team (IDT) that
develops the care plan?
A) The attending physician
B) A registered nurse
C) The resident and/or their representative
D) The facility's owner/investor
Answer: D) The facility's owner/investor ✓
8. What federal law protects the privacy and security of residents' health information?
A) OSHA
B) FMLA
C) HIPAA
D) ADA
Answer: C) HIPAA ✓
9. A resident expressing feelings of sadness, loss of interest, and changes in sleep/appetite
may be experiencing:
A) Normal aging.
B) Clinical depression.
C) Dementia.
D) A urinary tract infection.
Answer: B) Clinical depression. ✓
10. What document allows a resident to specify their wishes for medical treatment if they
become unable to speak for themselves?
A) A Will
B) A Power of Attorney for Finances
C) An Advance Directive (Living Will)
,D) A Do-Not-Hospitalize Order
Answer: C) An Advance Directive (Living Will) ✓
11. The term "aging in place" refers to:
A) Sending residents home from the nursing facility.
B) The ability to live in one's own home and community safely and independently.
C) A resident remaining in their room at all times.
D) A philosophy that residents should not be transferred to the hospital.
Answer: B) The ability to live in one's own home and community safely and independently. ✓
12. What is the purpose of the Resident Council?
A) To manage the facility's budget.
B) To give residents a forum to discuss concerns and participate in decision-making.
C) To hire and fire nursing staff.
D) To inspect the kitchen for cleanliness.
Answer: B) To give residents a forum to discuss concerns and participate in decision-making.
✓
13. A significant, unexpected decline in a resident's functional status is often called a:
A) Sentinel event.
B) Quality indicator.
C) Care plan goal.
D) Normal progression.
Answer: A) Sentinel event. ✓
14. Which government agency is responsible for surveying and certifying nursing facilities for
Medicare and Medicaid?
A) OSHA
B) The State Survey Agency
C) The Joint Commission
D) The Department of Justice
Answer: B) The State Survey Agency ✓
15. The "Care Area Assessment" (CAA) process is triggered by:
A) A family complaint.
B) Triggers identified in the MDS assessment.
C) The annual budget review.
D) A physician's order.
Answer: B) Triggers identified in the MDS assessment. ✓
, 16. What is the primary focus of Quality Assurance and Performance Improvement (QAPI)?
A) To assign blame for errors.
B) To systematically study processes and improve outcomes.
C) To meet minimum regulatory standards.
D) To reduce staff hours.
Answer: B) To systematically study processes and improve outcomes. ✓
17. A resident with dementia who is "sundowning" is most likely to:
A) Experience increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon and evening.
B) Sleep excessively during the day.
C) Refuse to eat.
D) Have increased energy in the morning.
Answer: A) Experience increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon and evening. ✓
18. The "Five Rights" of delegation in nursing are: Right Task, Right Circumstance, Right
Person, Right Direction/Communication, and:
A) Right Pay.
B) Right Time.
C) Right Supervision.
D) Right Room.
Answer: C) Right Supervision. ✓
19. What is the purpose of an "Abuse Prohibition" program?
A) To prevent residents from arguing with each other.
B) To implement policies for the identification, correction, and prevention of abuse, neglect, and
exploitation.
C) To ensure residents take their medications correctly.
D) To protect the facility from lawsuits.
Answer: B) To implement policies for the identification, correction, and prevention of abuse,
neglect, and exploitation. ✓
20. A "closed medical record" is used to document:
A) Physician visits.
B) Medication errors.
C) An incident, like a fall, after it has occurred.
D) Daily vital signs.
Answer: C) An incident, like a fall, after it has occurred. ✓
21. Which of the following is a key component of effective pain management?
A) Using restraints to prevent the resident from complaining.
Guide & Review
Resident Care & Quality of Life (Domain 1)
1. What is the primary purpose of the Resident Assessment Instrument (RAI)?
A) To determine the facility's billing rates.
B) To provide a comprehensive, standardized assessment of a resident's needs.
C) To document employee performance issues.
D) To order medical supplies.
Answer: B) To provide a comprehensive, standardized assessment of a resident's needs. ✓
2. The Minimum Data Set (MDS) is a key component of what larger process?
A) The employee onboarding process.
B) The Resident Assessment Instrument (RAI).
C) The annual budget process.
D) The facility marketing plan.
Answer: B) The Resident Assessment Instrument (RAI). ✓
3. What is the primary goal of a person-centered care model?
A) To streamline staff workflows for efficiency.
B) To make care delivery easier for the nursing staff.
C) To focus on the resident's individual preferences, values, and needs.
D) To reduce the cost of care supplies.
Answer: C) To focus on the resident's individual preferences, values, and needs. ✓
4. A resident has the right to be free from physical or chemical restraints used for purposes of
discipline or staff convenience. This is a core principle of:
A) OBRA '87.
B) HIPAA.
C) OSHA.
D) ERISA.
Answer: A) OBRA '87. ✓
5. What committee is responsible for reviewing the use of psychoactive medications and
potential restraints in the facility?
A) The Quality Assurance and Performance Improvement (QAPI) committee.
B) The Pharmaceutical Services committee.
C) The Infection Control committee.
,D) The Patient Safety committee.
Answer: A) The Quality Assurance and Performance Improvement (QAPI) committee. ✓
6. The "Comprehensive Care Plan" for a resident must be developed within how many days of
admission?
A) 7 days
B) 14 days
C) 21 days
D) 30 days
Answer: A) 7 days ✓
7. Which of the following is NOT a required member of the Interdisciplinary Team (IDT) that
develops the care plan?
A) The attending physician
B) A registered nurse
C) The resident and/or their representative
D) The facility's owner/investor
Answer: D) The facility's owner/investor ✓
8. What federal law protects the privacy and security of residents' health information?
A) OSHA
B) FMLA
C) HIPAA
D) ADA
Answer: C) HIPAA ✓
9. A resident expressing feelings of sadness, loss of interest, and changes in sleep/appetite
may be experiencing:
A) Normal aging.
B) Clinical depression.
C) Dementia.
D) A urinary tract infection.
Answer: B) Clinical depression. ✓
10. What document allows a resident to specify their wishes for medical treatment if they
become unable to speak for themselves?
A) A Will
B) A Power of Attorney for Finances
C) An Advance Directive (Living Will)
,D) A Do-Not-Hospitalize Order
Answer: C) An Advance Directive (Living Will) ✓
11. The term "aging in place" refers to:
A) Sending residents home from the nursing facility.
B) The ability to live in one's own home and community safely and independently.
C) A resident remaining in their room at all times.
D) A philosophy that residents should not be transferred to the hospital.
Answer: B) The ability to live in one's own home and community safely and independently. ✓
12. What is the purpose of the Resident Council?
A) To manage the facility's budget.
B) To give residents a forum to discuss concerns and participate in decision-making.
C) To hire and fire nursing staff.
D) To inspect the kitchen for cleanliness.
Answer: B) To give residents a forum to discuss concerns and participate in decision-making.
✓
13. A significant, unexpected decline in a resident's functional status is often called a:
A) Sentinel event.
B) Quality indicator.
C) Care plan goal.
D) Normal progression.
Answer: A) Sentinel event. ✓
14. Which government agency is responsible for surveying and certifying nursing facilities for
Medicare and Medicaid?
A) OSHA
B) The State Survey Agency
C) The Joint Commission
D) The Department of Justice
Answer: B) The State Survey Agency ✓
15. The "Care Area Assessment" (CAA) process is triggered by:
A) A family complaint.
B) Triggers identified in the MDS assessment.
C) The annual budget review.
D) A physician's order.
Answer: B) Triggers identified in the MDS assessment. ✓
, 16. What is the primary focus of Quality Assurance and Performance Improvement (QAPI)?
A) To assign blame for errors.
B) To systematically study processes and improve outcomes.
C) To meet minimum regulatory standards.
D) To reduce staff hours.
Answer: B) To systematically study processes and improve outcomes. ✓
17. A resident with dementia who is "sundowning" is most likely to:
A) Experience increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon and evening.
B) Sleep excessively during the day.
C) Refuse to eat.
D) Have increased energy in the morning.
Answer: A) Experience increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon and evening. ✓
18. The "Five Rights" of delegation in nursing are: Right Task, Right Circumstance, Right
Person, Right Direction/Communication, and:
A) Right Pay.
B) Right Time.
C) Right Supervision.
D) Right Room.
Answer: C) Right Supervision. ✓
19. What is the purpose of an "Abuse Prohibition" program?
A) To prevent residents from arguing with each other.
B) To implement policies for the identification, correction, and prevention of abuse, neglect, and
exploitation.
C) To ensure residents take their medications correctly.
D) To protect the facility from lawsuits.
Answer: B) To implement policies for the identification, correction, and prevention of abuse,
neglect, and exploitation. ✓
20. A "closed medical record" is used to document:
A) Physician visits.
B) Medication errors.
C) An incident, like a fall, after it has occurred.
D) Daily vital signs.
Answer: C) An incident, like a fall, after it has occurred. ✓
21. Which of the following is a key component of effective pain management?
A) Using restraints to prevent the resident from complaining.
