Evolve Pharmacology hesi EXAM 2025
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_hlzmtb
1. A client who has been taking phenazopyridine (Pyridium) for symptoms of
urethritis and cystitis comes to the clinic because her urine is reddish-orange.
Which question should the practical nurse ask to determine if the medication
has been effective?: C) Have you had any relief from urinary pain, burning, or urgency?
Feedback:
Phenazopyridine, an over-the-counter urinary analgesic, acts on the mucosa of the urinary tract to relieve urinary pain,
burning, itching, or urgency (C) associated with urethritis and cystitis. Although determining if the client is forcing fluids
(A), experiencing staining from Pyridium's side effect (B), or having signs of a urinary infection (D) are worthwhile
assessments, the therapeutic response of Pyridium is related to urinary discomforts only.
2. A male client who has been receiving an antineoplastic drug has developed
thrombocytopenia. What instructions should the practical nurse (PN) rein-
force?: D) Shave with an electric razor.
Feedback:
Thrombocytopenia is a common side effect of bone marrow depression caused by several antineoplastic agents. The
client is experiencing a low platelet count and should use an electric razor (D) to reduce his risk of bleeding. (A, B, and
C) are not indicated for a client who needs to implement thrombocytopenia precautions.
3. The practical nurse (PN) is caring for a client who has been taking prednisone
(Deltasone) daily for a year. Which adverse effect should the PN document in
the client's record?: B) Weight gain.
Feedback:
Long term use of prednisone causes fluid retention and redistribution of fat deposition. Weight gain (B) and moon
face reflect adverse effects of long-term prednisone use and should be documented. (A, C, and D) do not occur with
treatment using prednisone.
4. A female client with recurring headaches tells the practical nurse (PN) that
she has been taking at least 4 grams of acetaminophen a day. Which laboratory
studies should the PN review for this client?: B) Hepatic enzymes.
Feedback:
Liver toxicity can occur when doses of acetaminophen exceed 4 grams a day, resulting in an elevation in hepatic enzyme
values (B). (A, C, and D) do not reveal findings related to acetaminophen toxicity.
5. A client receives a prescription for an oral opioid analgesic for post-operative
pain. Which adverse effect should the practical nurse (PN) monitor for with the
client?: A) Constipation.
, Evolve Pharmacology hesi EXAM 2025
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_hlzmtb
Feedback:
Opioid analgesics slow peristalsis, which leads to constipation (A), a common side effect of opiates. (B, C, and D) are
not associated with opioid analgesics.
6. Which action should the practical nurse implement when administering a
buccal medication?: D) Place the medication between the upper molar teeth and cheek.
Feedback:
Buccal medications are placed between the upper molar teeth and the cheek (D) for absorption by the capillaries of
the oral mucosa. The client should be cautioned against swallowing, not (A). Buccal medications are not administered
with water (B). (C) describes sublingual administration.
7. What assessment is most important for the practical nurse (PN) to obtain
prior to initiating medication therapy with phenelzine (Nardil) for a client with
depression?: C) Understanding of diet modification.
Feedback:
To prevent a potentially lethal hypertensive crisis, a tyramine-free diet should be maintained during antidepressant
therapy with Nardil, a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). It is most important to determine if the client understands
diet modification (C) before Nardil is initiated to prevent consumption of foods that interact with Nardil. Although
a client's activity level (A) and mood and affect (B) should be monitored during antidepressant therapy, it is most
important that the client understand diet modifications. The client's support system (D) and network of family and
friends is important, but the client should understand the responsibility of dietary compliance with the medication
regimen.
8. The practical nurse (PN) is unable to arouse a client who is receiving meperi-
dine (Demerol) for postoperative pain. The client is stuporous, has constricted
pupils, and a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/minute. Which PRN prescription
should the PN give the client?: A) Naloxone (Narcan).
Feedback:
Narcan (A) is an opioid antagonist and should be administered to reverse the effects of a Demerol, an opioid, overdose.
(B, C, and D) are common postoperative PRN prescriptions but are not indicated for narcotic overdose.
9. On which therapeutic action should the practical nurse (PN) base an explana-
tion to a client who is receiving a cardiac glycoside?: C) Decreased rate of contraction.
Feedback:
Cardiac glycosides increase the force of cardiac contraction (inotropy) and decrease the heart rate (chronotropy) (C)
by decreasing the speed of conduction through the heart (dromotropy). (A, B, and D) are incorrect.
, Evolve Pharmacology hesi EXAM 2025
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_hlzmtb
10. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus received an early AM dose of regular
insulin per sliding scale. At 10:00 AM, the practical nurse (PN) should report
which signs indicative of hypoglycemia?: C) Irritability and confusion.
Feedback:
Irritability and confusion (C) are early signs of hypoglycemia. (A, B, and D) are not signs of hypoglycemia.
11. Which prescription should the practical nurse (PN) administer for a client
who is experiencing an anaphylactic reaction to an antibiotic?: B) Epinephrine (Adren-
alin).
Feedback:
Epinephrine (Adrenalin), a potent sympathomimetic, is the drug of choice for the treatment of anaphylaxis (B). (A, C,
and D) are not used for an acute immunololgical dysfunction that causes cardiovascular effects.
12. An older adult client receives a prescription for hydrochlorothiazide (Hy-
droDIURIL), a thiazide diuretic for the treatment of heart failure. Which side
effect(s) should the practical nurse reinforce with the client? (Select all that
apply.): B) Fatigue.
E) Dehydration.
Feedback:
Hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL), a thiazide diuretic, reduces blood pressure by reducing blood volume and reducing
arterial resistance. Adverse effects of thiazides include hypokalemia, fatigue (B), dehydration (E), hyperglycemia, and
hyperuricemia. Although (A, C, D and F) may be associated with aging or other pathology, they are not side effects
commonly associated with HydroDIURIL.
13. A client who returns from surgery for bowel resection complains of severe
pain around the incision. Which assessment is most important for the practical
nurse (PN) to obtain prior to the administration of morphine sulfate?: A) Rate of
respirations.
Feedback:
Opioids cause respiratory depression, so the respiratory rate (A) should be assessed prior to administration of morphine
sulfate. (B, C, and D) do not address the concept of medication safety.
14. A client is receiving the third course of 5-fluorouracil (5FU) therapy for a
tumor of the liver. Which action should the practical nurse implement to reduce
the client's risk for stomatitis?: D) Examine mouth daily for bleeding, white spots, and ulcerations.
Feedback:
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_hlzmtb
1. A client who has been taking phenazopyridine (Pyridium) for symptoms of
urethritis and cystitis comes to the clinic because her urine is reddish-orange.
Which question should the practical nurse ask to determine if the medication
has been effective?: C) Have you had any relief from urinary pain, burning, or urgency?
Feedback:
Phenazopyridine, an over-the-counter urinary analgesic, acts on the mucosa of the urinary tract to relieve urinary pain,
burning, itching, or urgency (C) associated with urethritis and cystitis. Although determining if the client is forcing fluids
(A), experiencing staining from Pyridium's side effect (B), or having signs of a urinary infection (D) are worthwhile
assessments, the therapeutic response of Pyridium is related to urinary discomforts only.
2. A male client who has been receiving an antineoplastic drug has developed
thrombocytopenia. What instructions should the practical nurse (PN) rein-
force?: D) Shave with an electric razor.
Feedback:
Thrombocytopenia is a common side effect of bone marrow depression caused by several antineoplastic agents. The
client is experiencing a low platelet count and should use an electric razor (D) to reduce his risk of bleeding. (A, B, and
C) are not indicated for a client who needs to implement thrombocytopenia precautions.
3. The practical nurse (PN) is caring for a client who has been taking prednisone
(Deltasone) daily for a year. Which adverse effect should the PN document in
the client's record?: B) Weight gain.
Feedback:
Long term use of prednisone causes fluid retention and redistribution of fat deposition. Weight gain (B) and moon
face reflect adverse effects of long-term prednisone use and should be documented. (A, C, and D) do not occur with
treatment using prednisone.
4. A female client with recurring headaches tells the practical nurse (PN) that
she has been taking at least 4 grams of acetaminophen a day. Which laboratory
studies should the PN review for this client?: B) Hepatic enzymes.
Feedback:
Liver toxicity can occur when doses of acetaminophen exceed 4 grams a day, resulting in an elevation in hepatic enzyme
values (B). (A, C, and D) do not reveal findings related to acetaminophen toxicity.
5. A client receives a prescription for an oral opioid analgesic for post-operative
pain. Which adverse effect should the practical nurse (PN) monitor for with the
client?: A) Constipation.
, Evolve Pharmacology hesi EXAM 2025
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_hlzmtb
Feedback:
Opioid analgesics slow peristalsis, which leads to constipation (A), a common side effect of opiates. (B, C, and D) are
not associated with opioid analgesics.
6. Which action should the practical nurse implement when administering a
buccal medication?: D) Place the medication between the upper molar teeth and cheek.
Feedback:
Buccal medications are placed between the upper molar teeth and the cheek (D) for absorption by the capillaries of
the oral mucosa. The client should be cautioned against swallowing, not (A). Buccal medications are not administered
with water (B). (C) describes sublingual administration.
7. What assessment is most important for the practical nurse (PN) to obtain
prior to initiating medication therapy with phenelzine (Nardil) for a client with
depression?: C) Understanding of diet modification.
Feedback:
To prevent a potentially lethal hypertensive crisis, a tyramine-free diet should be maintained during antidepressant
therapy with Nardil, a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). It is most important to determine if the client understands
diet modification (C) before Nardil is initiated to prevent consumption of foods that interact with Nardil. Although
a client's activity level (A) and mood and affect (B) should be monitored during antidepressant therapy, it is most
important that the client understand diet modifications. The client's support system (D) and network of family and
friends is important, but the client should understand the responsibility of dietary compliance with the medication
regimen.
8. The practical nurse (PN) is unable to arouse a client who is receiving meperi-
dine (Demerol) for postoperative pain. The client is stuporous, has constricted
pupils, and a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/minute. Which PRN prescription
should the PN give the client?: A) Naloxone (Narcan).
Feedback:
Narcan (A) is an opioid antagonist and should be administered to reverse the effects of a Demerol, an opioid, overdose.
(B, C, and D) are common postoperative PRN prescriptions but are not indicated for narcotic overdose.
9. On which therapeutic action should the practical nurse (PN) base an explana-
tion to a client who is receiving a cardiac glycoside?: C) Decreased rate of contraction.
Feedback:
Cardiac glycosides increase the force of cardiac contraction (inotropy) and decrease the heart rate (chronotropy) (C)
by decreasing the speed of conduction through the heart (dromotropy). (A, B, and D) are incorrect.
, Evolve Pharmacology hesi EXAM 2025
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_hlzmtb
10. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus received an early AM dose of regular
insulin per sliding scale. At 10:00 AM, the practical nurse (PN) should report
which signs indicative of hypoglycemia?: C) Irritability and confusion.
Feedback:
Irritability and confusion (C) are early signs of hypoglycemia. (A, B, and D) are not signs of hypoglycemia.
11. Which prescription should the practical nurse (PN) administer for a client
who is experiencing an anaphylactic reaction to an antibiotic?: B) Epinephrine (Adren-
alin).
Feedback:
Epinephrine (Adrenalin), a potent sympathomimetic, is the drug of choice for the treatment of anaphylaxis (B). (A, C,
and D) are not used for an acute immunololgical dysfunction that causes cardiovascular effects.
12. An older adult client receives a prescription for hydrochlorothiazide (Hy-
droDIURIL), a thiazide diuretic for the treatment of heart failure. Which side
effect(s) should the practical nurse reinforce with the client? (Select all that
apply.): B) Fatigue.
E) Dehydration.
Feedback:
Hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL), a thiazide diuretic, reduces blood pressure by reducing blood volume and reducing
arterial resistance. Adverse effects of thiazides include hypokalemia, fatigue (B), dehydration (E), hyperglycemia, and
hyperuricemia. Although (A, C, D and F) may be associated with aging or other pathology, they are not side effects
commonly associated with HydroDIURIL.
13. A client who returns from surgery for bowel resection complains of severe
pain around the incision. Which assessment is most important for the practical
nurse (PN) to obtain prior to the administration of morphine sulfate?: A) Rate of
respirations.
Feedback:
Opioids cause respiratory depression, so the respiratory rate (A) should be assessed prior to administration of morphine
sulfate. (B, C, and D) do not address the concept of medication safety.
14. A client is receiving the third course of 5-fluorouracil (5FU) therapy for a
tumor of the liver. Which action should the practical nurse implement to reduce
the client's risk for stomatitis?: D) Examine mouth daily for bleeding, white spots, and ulcerations.
Feedback:
