Certified Perianesthesia Nurse (CAPA) Exam
Questions And Correct Answers (Verified
Answers) Plus Rationales 2025/2026 Q&A |
Instant Download Pdf.
1. Which of the following is the primary purpose of a preoperative
assessment?
A. To schedule surgery efficiently
B. To educate the patient about anesthesia
C. To identify patient risks and optimize safety
D. To prescribe postoperative medications
Rationale: The preoperative assessment identifies risks (medical, surgical,
anesthesia-related) and allows interventions to reduce complications.
2. Which laboratory test is routinely performed for a healthy adult
undergoing minor surgery?
A. Complete blood count (CBC)
B. None, if no comorbidities
C. Liver function tests
D. Coagulation profile
Rationale: Routine labs are not necessary for healthy adults undergoing low-
risk procedures unless indicated by history or comorbidities.
3. What is the recommended fasting period for clear liquids before elective
surgery?
A. 12 hours
B. 2 hours
C. 6 hours
D. 8 hours
Rationale: Evidence-based guidelines recommend 2 hours fasting for clear
liquids to reduce aspiration risk while avoiding unnecessary dehydration.
,4. Which patient is at highest risk for perioperative complications?
A. 25-year-old with no medical history
B. 40-year-old with controlled hypertension
C. 70-year-old with COPD and diabetes
D. 50-year-old undergoing elective hernia repair
Rationale: Advanced age and comorbidities increase surgical and anesthesia-
related risk.
5. What is the primary purpose of preoperative medication reconciliation?
A. To ensure insurance coverage
B. To prevent adverse drug interactions and omissions
C. To document allergies
D. To prepare anesthesia orders
Rationale: Reconciliation ensures safety by identifying potential interactions or
contraindications.
6. Which of the following is considered an absolute contraindication to
surgery?
A. Hypertension
B. Mild asthma
C. Active myocardial infarction
D. Diabetes mellitus
Rationale: Active myocardial infarction presents extreme perioperative risk and
is an absolute contraindication until stabilized.
7. When obtaining informed consent, what is the nurse's role?
A. Performing the surgical procedure
B. Determining surgical indication
C. Ensuring the patient understands and signs voluntarily
D. Prescribing anesthesia
Rationale: Nurses clarify information and witness consent but do not perform
or interpret the surgical plan.
, 8. Which preoperative assessment finding requires immediate notification of
the anesthesia provider?
A. Mild anxiety
B. History of smoking
C. History of seasonal allergies
D. Previous malignant hyperthermia episode
Rationale: Malignant hyperthermia is life-threatening and requires anesthesia
planning for safe management.
9. What is the purpose of preoperative skin preparation?
A. Improve cosmetic appearance
B. Reduce surgical time
C. Reduce microbial load and risk of infection
D. Identify anatomical landmarks
Rationale: Antiseptic skin preparation reduces postoperative wound infection
risk.
10. Which patient requires prophylactic antibiotics before surgery?
A. Healthy patient having cataract surgery
B. Patient with no implants undergoing laparoscopy
C. Patient undergoing colon resection
D. Patient having minor dermatologic excision
Rationale: Surgical procedures with high infection risk (like colon surgery)
warrant prophylactic antibiotics.
11. What is the primary goal of preoperative patient education?
A. Increase hospital satisfaction scores
B. Reduce nurse workload
C. Reduce anxiety and improve postoperative outcomes
D. Meet accreditation requirements
Rationale: Educated patients have better compliance, less anxiety, and
improved recovery.
Questions And Correct Answers (Verified
Answers) Plus Rationales 2025/2026 Q&A |
Instant Download Pdf.
1. Which of the following is the primary purpose of a preoperative
assessment?
A. To schedule surgery efficiently
B. To educate the patient about anesthesia
C. To identify patient risks and optimize safety
D. To prescribe postoperative medications
Rationale: The preoperative assessment identifies risks (medical, surgical,
anesthesia-related) and allows interventions to reduce complications.
2. Which laboratory test is routinely performed for a healthy adult
undergoing minor surgery?
A. Complete blood count (CBC)
B. None, if no comorbidities
C. Liver function tests
D. Coagulation profile
Rationale: Routine labs are not necessary for healthy adults undergoing low-
risk procedures unless indicated by history or comorbidities.
3. What is the recommended fasting period for clear liquids before elective
surgery?
A. 12 hours
B. 2 hours
C. 6 hours
D. 8 hours
Rationale: Evidence-based guidelines recommend 2 hours fasting for clear
liquids to reduce aspiration risk while avoiding unnecessary dehydration.
,4. Which patient is at highest risk for perioperative complications?
A. 25-year-old with no medical history
B. 40-year-old with controlled hypertension
C. 70-year-old with COPD and diabetes
D. 50-year-old undergoing elective hernia repair
Rationale: Advanced age and comorbidities increase surgical and anesthesia-
related risk.
5. What is the primary purpose of preoperative medication reconciliation?
A. To ensure insurance coverage
B. To prevent adverse drug interactions and omissions
C. To document allergies
D. To prepare anesthesia orders
Rationale: Reconciliation ensures safety by identifying potential interactions or
contraindications.
6. Which of the following is considered an absolute contraindication to
surgery?
A. Hypertension
B. Mild asthma
C. Active myocardial infarction
D. Diabetes mellitus
Rationale: Active myocardial infarction presents extreme perioperative risk and
is an absolute contraindication until stabilized.
7. When obtaining informed consent, what is the nurse's role?
A. Performing the surgical procedure
B. Determining surgical indication
C. Ensuring the patient understands and signs voluntarily
D. Prescribing anesthesia
Rationale: Nurses clarify information and witness consent but do not perform
or interpret the surgical plan.
, 8. Which preoperative assessment finding requires immediate notification of
the anesthesia provider?
A. Mild anxiety
B. History of smoking
C. History of seasonal allergies
D. Previous malignant hyperthermia episode
Rationale: Malignant hyperthermia is life-threatening and requires anesthesia
planning for safe management.
9. What is the purpose of preoperative skin preparation?
A. Improve cosmetic appearance
B. Reduce surgical time
C. Reduce microbial load and risk of infection
D. Identify anatomical landmarks
Rationale: Antiseptic skin preparation reduces postoperative wound infection
risk.
10. Which patient requires prophylactic antibiotics before surgery?
A. Healthy patient having cataract surgery
B. Patient with no implants undergoing laparoscopy
C. Patient undergoing colon resection
D. Patient having minor dermatologic excision
Rationale: Surgical procedures with high infection risk (like colon surgery)
warrant prophylactic antibiotics.
11. What is the primary goal of preoperative patient education?
A. Increase hospital satisfaction scores
B. Reduce nurse workload
C. Reduce anxiety and improve postoperative outcomes
D. Meet accreditation requirements
Rationale: Educated patients have better compliance, less anxiety, and
improved recovery.
