Vet Prep NAVLE Study test in depth Examination and 100%
correctly verified Solutions Latest version 2025/2026
A 2-year-old mare presents to you several weeks after recovering from a mild
upper respiratory infection. She now presents with edema and sloughing of the
legs (see image), chest and abdomen as well as mucosal petechial
hemorrhages. She is sore and reluctant to move. Biopsy of the skin lesion is
consistent with aseptic necrotizing vasculitis. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Cantharidin toxicity
Bastard strangles
Purpura hemorrhagica
Idiopathic thrombocytopenia
Type I hypersensitivity - correct answer Purpura hemorrhagica. This is the
clinical and histologic appearance of purpura hemorrhagica. It is a type-III
hypersensitivity which is when antigen-antibody complexes accumulate, leading
to disease.
Purpura hemorrhagica most commonly occurs 2-4 weeks after exposure to
certain infectious agents or vaccines. This condition is most commonly seen
subsequent to infection with Streptococcus equi subsp. Equi or vaccination
against it but it can also be associated with other pathogens, particularly
respiratory pathogens including other streptococcal species and equine
influenza.
Regardless of the cause, purpura hemorrhagica results from accumulation of
antigen-antibody complexes that deposit on blood vessel walls and activate a
strong immune response (vasculitis). The leaky blood vessels lead to
hemorrhage and edema.
Bastard strangles refers to the condition when Streptococcus equi subsp. Equi
creates abscesses in unusual sites (other than the lymph nodes draining the
throat) such as abdominal or lung lymph nodes.
,Cantharidin toxicity (also known as blister beetle toxicity) leads to mucosal
irritation and results in colic and cystitis. It can also lead to hypocalcemia.
Primary immune-mediated thrombocytopenia (sometimes called idiopathic
thrombocytopenia) can be seen in horses but is not consistent with the
necrotizing vasculitis described in the case.
Type I hypersensitivity reactions are immediate reactions (such as urticaria)
invoked by an antigen or allergen.
A 2-year old male neutered cat presents to you depressed, hypersalivating, and
ataxic with muscle tremors. The owner reports that a pyrethrin-based spot-on
formulation for flea control belonging to their Golden Retriever was accidentally
applied on the cat earlier today. Which of the following drugs will you use to treat
the cat's clinical signs?
Methocarbamol
Amoxicillin
Acepromazine
2-PAM
Atropine - correct answer Methocarbamol. Pyrethrins alter the activity of the
sodium ion channels of nerves, which prolongs the period of sodium
conductance. This increases the length of depolarization resulting in repetitive
nerve firing. Cats are particularly sensitive to pyrethrin-containing products and
can develop clinical signs within hours after administration. Affected animals
should be bathed to remove remaining product. Minor clinical signs such as
hypersalivation and ear twitching are usually self-limiting and do not require
treatment. Control of marked tremors or seizures can be achieved with
methocarbamol (Robaxin).
,A pregnant mare was brought out to your barn for observation in anticipation of
parturition. After several hours of restless behavior, several gallons of allantoic
fluid rush out from the vulva. Which of the following would you expect to happen
next for a normal parturition?
The placenta is expelled from the vulva
The thin, white, glistening amniotic membrane emerges from the vulva
The red, velvety, chorioallantoic membrane emerges from the vulva
The hind legs of the foal emerge from the vulva - correct answer The thin,
white, glistening amniotic membrane emerges from the vulva.This case
description is consistent with stage I of labor in the horse. The first stage of
foaling typically lasts 30 minutes to 4 hours. During this stage, mares act restless
and may exhibit signs similar to colic such as flank watching, pawing, and
constantly getting up and down. When the placenta ruptures ("water breaks"),
there may be several gallons of allantoic fluid that come out. Usually, within about
5 minutes, the second stage of labor begins and the foals feet and nose appear
at the vulva, covered in the white, thin, glistening amnion. If a red, velvety,
membrane is seen, this is the chorioallantois which indicates premature placental
separation which can impair oxygen delivery to the fetus and can result in death
of the foal. Usually, the muzzle will emerge from the amnion by the time the foal's
hips pass through the pelvis but if not, the amnion can be gently broken and
removed. Usually, the umbilical cord breaks naturally when the mare stands or
foal begins to rise. Then, within 30 minutes to 3 hours after foaling, the placenta
should be expelled.
A dog presents to your clinic with tenesmus and swelling near the anus as seen
in the image. On examination, there is a fluctuant swelling lateral to the anus,
and on rectal exam, you note lateral dilatation of the rectum. Which of the
following is the most common signalment for dogs presenting with this problem?
They are younger intact males
They are older intact males
They are younger intact females
There is no age or sex predilection
, They are older intact females - correct answer They are older intact males.
This is a case of a perineal hernia. Older intact male dogs are most commonly
affected. Overrepresented breeds include Boxers, Collies, Kelpies, Pekingese,
and Boston terriers. The hernia results from a weakened pelvic diaphragm. It is
thought that there may be a hormonal component which results in weakening
with time.
A 3-year old female spayed indoor/outdoor domestic short hair presents for
congestion and swelling over the bridge of the nose. The swelling over the nose
is firm and seems to be subcutaneous. There is also mild enlargement of the
mandibular lymph nodes. You perform cytology from a fine needle aspirate of the
swelling over the nose and see narrow, budding, thick-walled yeasts surrounded
by clear capsules (see picture). You also detected a lesion in the retina on fundic
examination. Which of the following treatments would be indicated?
Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid
Doxycycline
Lufenuron
Itraconazole
Trimethoprim sulfa - correct answer Itraconazole. Based on the description of
the cytology and clinical symptoms of this cat, the most likely diagnosis is
Cryptococcus neoformans. This is a fungal disease that occurs when the
organism is inhaled and is disseminated to skin, eyes, CNS, lungs, or other
areas. The upper respiratory tract is most often involved and symptoms can
include nasal discharge, sneezing, swelling over the nose, and regional
lymphadenopathy. If the CNS is involved, seizures can also occur. The disease
has been thought to be transmitted most often through infected pigeon
droppings. Itraconazole or fluconazole are the anti-fungals of choice for this
disease. Doxycycline, Trimethoprim sulfa, and Clavamox are all antibiotics and
would not address a fungal infection. Lufenuron is a flea treatment that has had
some implications for treatment of dermatophytes due to its ability to inhibit chitin.
About 1/3 of the cell wall of a fungus is composed of chitin. This has not been a
promising or approved treatment for ringworm and surely would not be an
appropriate treatment for Cryptococcus.
correctly verified Solutions Latest version 2025/2026
A 2-year-old mare presents to you several weeks after recovering from a mild
upper respiratory infection. She now presents with edema and sloughing of the
legs (see image), chest and abdomen as well as mucosal petechial
hemorrhages. She is sore and reluctant to move. Biopsy of the skin lesion is
consistent with aseptic necrotizing vasculitis. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Cantharidin toxicity
Bastard strangles
Purpura hemorrhagica
Idiopathic thrombocytopenia
Type I hypersensitivity - correct answer Purpura hemorrhagica. This is the
clinical and histologic appearance of purpura hemorrhagica. It is a type-III
hypersensitivity which is when antigen-antibody complexes accumulate, leading
to disease.
Purpura hemorrhagica most commonly occurs 2-4 weeks after exposure to
certain infectious agents or vaccines. This condition is most commonly seen
subsequent to infection with Streptococcus equi subsp. Equi or vaccination
against it but it can also be associated with other pathogens, particularly
respiratory pathogens including other streptococcal species and equine
influenza.
Regardless of the cause, purpura hemorrhagica results from accumulation of
antigen-antibody complexes that deposit on blood vessel walls and activate a
strong immune response (vasculitis). The leaky blood vessels lead to
hemorrhage and edema.
Bastard strangles refers to the condition when Streptococcus equi subsp. Equi
creates abscesses in unusual sites (other than the lymph nodes draining the
throat) such as abdominal or lung lymph nodes.
,Cantharidin toxicity (also known as blister beetle toxicity) leads to mucosal
irritation and results in colic and cystitis. It can also lead to hypocalcemia.
Primary immune-mediated thrombocytopenia (sometimes called idiopathic
thrombocytopenia) can be seen in horses but is not consistent with the
necrotizing vasculitis described in the case.
Type I hypersensitivity reactions are immediate reactions (such as urticaria)
invoked by an antigen or allergen.
A 2-year old male neutered cat presents to you depressed, hypersalivating, and
ataxic with muscle tremors. The owner reports that a pyrethrin-based spot-on
formulation for flea control belonging to their Golden Retriever was accidentally
applied on the cat earlier today. Which of the following drugs will you use to treat
the cat's clinical signs?
Methocarbamol
Amoxicillin
Acepromazine
2-PAM
Atropine - correct answer Methocarbamol. Pyrethrins alter the activity of the
sodium ion channels of nerves, which prolongs the period of sodium
conductance. This increases the length of depolarization resulting in repetitive
nerve firing. Cats are particularly sensitive to pyrethrin-containing products and
can develop clinical signs within hours after administration. Affected animals
should be bathed to remove remaining product. Minor clinical signs such as
hypersalivation and ear twitching are usually self-limiting and do not require
treatment. Control of marked tremors or seizures can be achieved with
methocarbamol (Robaxin).
,A pregnant mare was brought out to your barn for observation in anticipation of
parturition. After several hours of restless behavior, several gallons of allantoic
fluid rush out from the vulva. Which of the following would you expect to happen
next for a normal parturition?
The placenta is expelled from the vulva
The thin, white, glistening amniotic membrane emerges from the vulva
The red, velvety, chorioallantoic membrane emerges from the vulva
The hind legs of the foal emerge from the vulva - correct answer The thin,
white, glistening amniotic membrane emerges from the vulva.This case
description is consistent with stage I of labor in the horse. The first stage of
foaling typically lasts 30 minutes to 4 hours. During this stage, mares act restless
and may exhibit signs similar to colic such as flank watching, pawing, and
constantly getting up and down. When the placenta ruptures ("water breaks"),
there may be several gallons of allantoic fluid that come out. Usually, within about
5 minutes, the second stage of labor begins and the foals feet and nose appear
at the vulva, covered in the white, thin, glistening amnion. If a red, velvety,
membrane is seen, this is the chorioallantois which indicates premature placental
separation which can impair oxygen delivery to the fetus and can result in death
of the foal. Usually, the muzzle will emerge from the amnion by the time the foal's
hips pass through the pelvis but if not, the amnion can be gently broken and
removed. Usually, the umbilical cord breaks naturally when the mare stands or
foal begins to rise. Then, within 30 minutes to 3 hours after foaling, the placenta
should be expelled.
A dog presents to your clinic with tenesmus and swelling near the anus as seen
in the image. On examination, there is a fluctuant swelling lateral to the anus,
and on rectal exam, you note lateral dilatation of the rectum. Which of the
following is the most common signalment for dogs presenting with this problem?
They are younger intact males
They are older intact males
They are younger intact females
There is no age or sex predilection
, They are older intact females - correct answer They are older intact males.
This is a case of a perineal hernia. Older intact male dogs are most commonly
affected. Overrepresented breeds include Boxers, Collies, Kelpies, Pekingese,
and Boston terriers. The hernia results from a weakened pelvic diaphragm. It is
thought that there may be a hormonal component which results in weakening
with time.
A 3-year old female spayed indoor/outdoor domestic short hair presents for
congestion and swelling over the bridge of the nose. The swelling over the nose
is firm and seems to be subcutaneous. There is also mild enlargement of the
mandibular lymph nodes. You perform cytology from a fine needle aspirate of the
swelling over the nose and see narrow, budding, thick-walled yeasts surrounded
by clear capsules (see picture). You also detected a lesion in the retina on fundic
examination. Which of the following treatments would be indicated?
Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid
Doxycycline
Lufenuron
Itraconazole
Trimethoprim sulfa - correct answer Itraconazole. Based on the description of
the cytology and clinical symptoms of this cat, the most likely diagnosis is
Cryptococcus neoformans. This is a fungal disease that occurs when the
organism is inhaled and is disseminated to skin, eyes, CNS, lungs, or other
areas. The upper respiratory tract is most often involved and symptoms can
include nasal discharge, sneezing, swelling over the nose, and regional
lymphadenopathy. If the CNS is involved, seizures can also occur. The disease
has been thought to be transmitted most often through infected pigeon
droppings. Itraconazole or fluconazole are the anti-fungals of choice for this
disease. Doxycycline, Trimethoprim sulfa, and Clavamox are all antibiotics and
would not address a fungal infection. Lufenuron is a flea treatment that has had
some implications for treatment of dermatophytes due to its ability to inhibit chitin.
About 1/3 of the cell wall of a fungus is composed of chitin. This has not been a
promising or approved treatment for ringworm and surely would not be an
appropriate treatment for Cryptococcus.
