BSN 315 HESI Pharmacology Actual Exam (Latest Update)
Real Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correct | Already Graded
A+
Question 1
A client diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS) who self-administers interferon beta-1a reports
feeling increasingly depressed over the past month. Which action should the nurse implement?
A) Advise the client to stop taking the medication immediately.
B) Recommend that the client take an over-the-counter herbal supplement for mood.
C) Notify the healthcare provider of the findings immediately.
D) Reassure the client that depression is an expected and manageable side effect.
Correct Answer: C) Notify the healthcare provider of the findings immediately.
Rationale: Depression and suicidal ideation are known, serious adverse effects of interferon
beta-1a. This is a significant safety concern that requires immediate communication with
the healthcare provider for further evaluation and potential intervention, such as a change
in medication or the addition of an antidepressant.
Question 2
Before administering the initial dose of sumatriptan to a client with a migraine headache, it is
most important for the nurse to assess the client's history for which condition?
A) Diabetes mellitus
B) Coronary artery disease (CAD)
C) Peptic ulcer disease
D) Asthma
Correct Answer: B) Coronary artery disease (CAD)
Rationale: Sumatriptan is a serotonin receptor agonist that works by causing
vasoconstriction of cranial arteries. Because it can also cause coronary artery vasospasm, it
is contraindicated in clients with a history of ischemic heart disease, such as CAD or
angina, as it could precipitate a myocardial infarction.
Question 3
A client receives a prescription for ciprofloxacin 400 mg intravenously (IV) every 12 hours, to be
infused over one hour. The IV bag contains ciprofloxacin 400 mg in 200 mL of D5W. At how
many mL/hr should the nurse program the infusion pump?
A) 100
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B) 150
C) 200
D) 400
Correct Answer: C) 200
Rationale: The calculation is Rate = Volume / Time. The total volume to be infused is 200
mL. The total time for the infusion is 1 hour. Therefore, the rate is 200 mL / 1 hour = 200
mL/hr.
Question 4
Before administering a laxative to a bedfast client, it is most important for the nurse to perform
which assessment?
A) Determine the frequency and consistency of the client's bowel movements.
B) Assess the client's ability to ambulate to the bathroom.
C) Check the client's serum potassium level.
D) Auscultate the client's lung sounds.
Correct Answer: A) Determine the frequency and consistency of the client's bowel
movements.
Rationale: The nurse must first establish the client's baseline bowel habits and the nature of
the current problem (e.g., constipation vs. impaction). Administering a laxative without a
proper assessment could be inappropriate or even harmful, especially if an impaction or
obstruction is present.
Question 5
A client with hypothyroidism is prescribed levothyroxine. The nurse should instruct the client to
report which symptom, as it indicates the dose is too high?
A) Fatigue
B) Weight gain
C) Constipation
D) Restlessness and palpitations
Correct Answer: D) Restlessness and palpitations
Rationale: Levothyroxine is a synthetic thyroid hormone. If the dose is too high, it can
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induce a state of hyperthyroidism. The symptoms of an overdose are the symptoms of
hyperthyroidism, which include nervousness, restlessness, insomnia, tachycardia, and
palpitations.
Question 6
A male client reports that he is experiencing gastrointestinal distress from a high dose of a
corticosteroid and plans to stop taking the medication. What is the nurse's most important
response?
A) Advise the client that the medication should be tapered down gradually rather than stopped
abruptly.
B) Recommend that the client take an antacid with the medication.
C) Inform the client that GI distress is a rare side effect.
D) Encourage the client to stop the medication and schedule a follow-up appointment.
Correct Answer: A) Advise the client that the medication should be tapered down gradually
rather than stopped abruptly.
Rationale: Long-term use of corticosteroids suppresses the body's natural production of
cortisol by the adrenal glands. Abruptly stopping the medication can lead to a life-
threatening adrenal crisis. It is critical to teach the client that the dose must be tapered
slowly under medical supervision.
Question 7
A client taking pilocarpine hydrochloride ophthalmic drops for glaucoma reports having
difficulty seeing at night. What is the best explanation for the nurse to provide?
A) "This is a sign of an allergic reaction to the medication."
B) "The eye drops slow the pupil's response to accommodate for darkness."
C) "This indicates that your glaucoma is getting worse."
D) "You are likely experiencing a cataract, which is common with glaucoma."
Correct Answer: B) "The eye drops slow the pupil's response to accommodate for
darkness."
Rationale: Pilocarpine is a miotic agent, meaning it causes the pupil to constrict. This action
helps to increase the outflow of aqueous humor in glaucoma. However, a constricted pupil
Real Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correct | Already Graded
A+
Question 1
A client diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS) who self-administers interferon beta-1a reports
feeling increasingly depressed over the past month. Which action should the nurse implement?
A) Advise the client to stop taking the medication immediately.
B) Recommend that the client take an over-the-counter herbal supplement for mood.
C) Notify the healthcare provider of the findings immediately.
D) Reassure the client that depression is an expected and manageable side effect.
Correct Answer: C) Notify the healthcare provider of the findings immediately.
Rationale: Depression and suicidal ideation are known, serious adverse effects of interferon
beta-1a. This is a significant safety concern that requires immediate communication with
the healthcare provider for further evaluation and potential intervention, such as a change
in medication or the addition of an antidepressant.
Question 2
Before administering the initial dose of sumatriptan to a client with a migraine headache, it is
most important for the nurse to assess the client's history for which condition?
A) Diabetes mellitus
B) Coronary artery disease (CAD)
C) Peptic ulcer disease
D) Asthma
Correct Answer: B) Coronary artery disease (CAD)
Rationale: Sumatriptan is a serotonin receptor agonist that works by causing
vasoconstriction of cranial arteries. Because it can also cause coronary artery vasospasm, it
is contraindicated in clients with a history of ischemic heart disease, such as CAD or
angina, as it could precipitate a myocardial infarction.
Question 3
A client receives a prescription for ciprofloxacin 400 mg intravenously (IV) every 12 hours, to be
infused over one hour. The IV bag contains ciprofloxacin 400 mg in 200 mL of D5W. At how
many mL/hr should the nurse program the infusion pump?
A) 100
,[Type here]
B) 150
C) 200
D) 400
Correct Answer: C) 200
Rationale: The calculation is Rate = Volume / Time. The total volume to be infused is 200
mL. The total time for the infusion is 1 hour. Therefore, the rate is 200 mL / 1 hour = 200
mL/hr.
Question 4
Before administering a laxative to a bedfast client, it is most important for the nurse to perform
which assessment?
A) Determine the frequency and consistency of the client's bowel movements.
B) Assess the client's ability to ambulate to the bathroom.
C) Check the client's serum potassium level.
D) Auscultate the client's lung sounds.
Correct Answer: A) Determine the frequency and consistency of the client's bowel
movements.
Rationale: The nurse must first establish the client's baseline bowel habits and the nature of
the current problem (e.g., constipation vs. impaction). Administering a laxative without a
proper assessment could be inappropriate or even harmful, especially if an impaction or
obstruction is present.
Question 5
A client with hypothyroidism is prescribed levothyroxine. The nurse should instruct the client to
report which symptom, as it indicates the dose is too high?
A) Fatigue
B) Weight gain
C) Constipation
D) Restlessness and palpitations
Correct Answer: D) Restlessness and palpitations
Rationale: Levothyroxine is a synthetic thyroid hormone. If the dose is too high, it can
, [Type here]
induce a state of hyperthyroidism. The symptoms of an overdose are the symptoms of
hyperthyroidism, which include nervousness, restlessness, insomnia, tachycardia, and
palpitations.
Question 6
A male client reports that he is experiencing gastrointestinal distress from a high dose of a
corticosteroid and plans to stop taking the medication. What is the nurse's most important
response?
A) Advise the client that the medication should be tapered down gradually rather than stopped
abruptly.
B) Recommend that the client take an antacid with the medication.
C) Inform the client that GI distress is a rare side effect.
D) Encourage the client to stop the medication and schedule a follow-up appointment.
Correct Answer: A) Advise the client that the medication should be tapered down gradually
rather than stopped abruptly.
Rationale: Long-term use of corticosteroids suppresses the body's natural production of
cortisol by the adrenal glands. Abruptly stopping the medication can lead to a life-
threatening adrenal crisis. It is critical to teach the client that the dose must be tapered
slowly under medical supervision.
Question 7
A client taking pilocarpine hydrochloride ophthalmic drops for glaucoma reports having
difficulty seeing at night. What is the best explanation for the nurse to provide?
A) "This is a sign of an allergic reaction to the medication."
B) "The eye drops slow the pupil's response to accommodate for darkness."
C) "This indicates that your glaucoma is getting worse."
D) "You are likely experiencing a cataract, which is common with glaucoma."
Correct Answer: B) "The eye drops slow the pupil's response to accommodate for
darkness."
Rationale: Pilocarpine is a miotic agent, meaning it causes the pupil to constrict. This action
helps to increase the outflow of aqueous humor in glaucoma. However, a constricted pupil
