NR 565 - advanced pharmacology midterm - Chamberlain
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_d0he6t
1. During what trimester is a pregnant woman most at risk for adverse drug
reactions with potential long term consequences?: 1st trimester (fetus most at risk d/t rapid
growth)
2. What is BEERS criteria?: Recommendations of medications inappropriate for elderly (65 and older),
prescriber ultimately decides
3. What is the CYP450 (cytochrome P450): liver enzyme system where medications are metabolized,
can either be inducers or inhibitors and create drug-drug interactions
4. CYP450 inducers: Speed up metabolism of drugs (drug is cleared faster), drug has lesser effect (decrease
blood levels of drug), elevate CYP450 enzymes
5. CYP450 inducers pneumonic: "Bullshit Crap GPS INDUCES rage"
6. CYP450 inducer drug names: Barbituates, St John wort, Carbamazepine, rifampin, alcohol, phenytoin,
griseofulvin, phenobarbital, sulfonylureas
7. CYP450 inhibitors: inhibit metabolism, increase blood levels of medications
8. CYP450 pneumonic: "VISA credit card debt INHIBITS spending on designers like CK to look GQ"
9. CYP450 inhibitors drug names: Valproate, isoniazid, sulfonamides, amiodarone, chloramphenicol,
ketoconazole, grapefruit juice, quinidine
10. Physiological changes during pregnancy that impact pharmacodynamics
and pharmacokinetic properties of drugs?: increase glomerular filtration rate leads to increase
durg excretion
increase hepatic metabolism
decrease tone and motility of bowel
increase drug absorption
11. Examples of medications that can be teratogenic: Antiepileptic drugs, antimicrobials such
as tetracyclines and fluoroquinolones, vitamin A in large doses, some anticoagulants, and hormonal medications such
as diethylstilbestrol (DES).
12. How is absorption of intramuscular medications different in neonates?: slow
and erratic due to low blood flow in muscles first few days of life
13. Why is absorption of medication in the stomach increased in infancy?: delayed
gastric emptying
14. Some medications that should be avoided in the pediatric patient?: glucocorti-
coids, discoloration of developing teeth with tetracyclines, and kernicterus with sulfonamides, levofloxacin (antibiotics)
aspirin (Severe intoxication from acute overdose)
, NR 565 - advanced pharmacology midterm - Chamberlain
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_d0he6t
15. what should be included in medication administration patient education?: -
dosage size and timing
route and technique of administration
duration of treatment
drug storage
nature and time course of desired responses
nature and time course of adverse responses
finish taking antibiotic
16. What are some things that put the elderly patient at higher risk for adverse
drug reactions?: reduced renal function
polypharmacy (the use of five or more medications daily)
greater severity of illness
presence of comorbidities
use of drugs that have a low therapeutic index (e.g., digoxin)
increased individual variation secondary to altered pharmacokinetics
inadequate supervision of long-term therapy
poor patient adherence
17. How can healthcare providers decrease likelihood of an elderly patient expe-
riencing an adverse drug reaction?: obtaining a thorough drug history that includes over-the-counter
medications
considering pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamics changes due to age
monitoring the patient's clinical response and plasma drug levels
using the simplest regimen possible
monitoring for drug-drug interactions and iatrogenic illness
periodically reviewing the need for continued drug therapy
encouraging the patient to dispose of old medications
taking steps to promote adherence and to avoid drugs on the Beers list
18. How can we promote medication adherence with elderly patients?: simplifying
drug regimens
providing clear and concise verbal and written instructions
using an appropriate dosage form
clearly labeling and dispensing easy-to-open containers
, NR 565 - advanced pharmacology midterm - Chamberlain
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_d0he6t
developing daily reminders
monitoring frequently
affordability of drugs
support systems
19. Why do nitrates need to be taken no later than 4 PM?: Need nitrate free interval so
tolerance doesn't develop
20. Nine factors that impact outcome of medication?: Gender and race
Genetics and pharmacogenomics
Variability in absorption
placebo effect
Tolerance
patho
age
bodyweight
21. Do you need informed consent for genetic testing?: yes
22. What is the purpose of the Genetic Information Non-Discriminatory Act?: Pro-
tects patients from discrimination by employers and insurance providers based on genetic information
23. Difference between practice authority and prescriptive authority?: Practice au-
thority refers to the nurse practitioner's ability to practice without physician oversight, whereas prescriptive authority
refers to the nurse practitioner's authority to prescribe medications independently and without limitations.
24. Who regulates prescriptive authority?: the jurisdiction of a health professional board. This may
be the State Board of Nursing, the State Board of Medicine, or the State Board of Pharmacy, as determined by each
state.
25. What is scope of practice determined by?: is determined by state practice and licensure laws.
26. What is full practice authority?: Nurse practitioners have the autonomy to evaluate patients,
diagnose, order and interpret tests, initiate and manage treatments and prescribe medications, including controlled
substances without physician oversight.
27. What is reduced practice authority?: Nurse practitioners are limited in at least one element of
practice. The state requires a formal collaborative agreement with an outside health discipline for the nurse practitioner
to provide patient care. ex/ physician involvement for 5 yrs than independent
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_d0he6t
1. During what trimester is a pregnant woman most at risk for adverse drug
reactions with potential long term consequences?: 1st trimester (fetus most at risk d/t rapid
growth)
2. What is BEERS criteria?: Recommendations of medications inappropriate for elderly (65 and older),
prescriber ultimately decides
3. What is the CYP450 (cytochrome P450): liver enzyme system where medications are metabolized,
can either be inducers or inhibitors and create drug-drug interactions
4. CYP450 inducers: Speed up metabolism of drugs (drug is cleared faster), drug has lesser effect (decrease
blood levels of drug), elevate CYP450 enzymes
5. CYP450 inducers pneumonic: "Bullshit Crap GPS INDUCES rage"
6. CYP450 inducer drug names: Barbituates, St John wort, Carbamazepine, rifampin, alcohol, phenytoin,
griseofulvin, phenobarbital, sulfonylureas
7. CYP450 inhibitors: inhibit metabolism, increase blood levels of medications
8. CYP450 pneumonic: "VISA credit card debt INHIBITS spending on designers like CK to look GQ"
9. CYP450 inhibitors drug names: Valproate, isoniazid, sulfonamides, amiodarone, chloramphenicol,
ketoconazole, grapefruit juice, quinidine
10. Physiological changes during pregnancy that impact pharmacodynamics
and pharmacokinetic properties of drugs?: increase glomerular filtration rate leads to increase
durg excretion
increase hepatic metabolism
decrease tone and motility of bowel
increase drug absorption
11. Examples of medications that can be teratogenic: Antiepileptic drugs, antimicrobials such
as tetracyclines and fluoroquinolones, vitamin A in large doses, some anticoagulants, and hormonal medications such
as diethylstilbestrol (DES).
12. How is absorption of intramuscular medications different in neonates?: slow
and erratic due to low blood flow in muscles first few days of life
13. Why is absorption of medication in the stomach increased in infancy?: delayed
gastric emptying
14. Some medications that should be avoided in the pediatric patient?: glucocorti-
coids, discoloration of developing teeth with tetracyclines, and kernicterus with sulfonamides, levofloxacin (antibiotics)
aspirin (Severe intoxication from acute overdose)
, NR 565 - advanced pharmacology midterm - Chamberlain
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_d0he6t
15. what should be included in medication administration patient education?: -
dosage size and timing
route and technique of administration
duration of treatment
drug storage
nature and time course of desired responses
nature and time course of adverse responses
finish taking antibiotic
16. What are some things that put the elderly patient at higher risk for adverse
drug reactions?: reduced renal function
polypharmacy (the use of five or more medications daily)
greater severity of illness
presence of comorbidities
use of drugs that have a low therapeutic index (e.g., digoxin)
increased individual variation secondary to altered pharmacokinetics
inadequate supervision of long-term therapy
poor patient adherence
17. How can healthcare providers decrease likelihood of an elderly patient expe-
riencing an adverse drug reaction?: obtaining a thorough drug history that includes over-the-counter
medications
considering pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamics changes due to age
monitoring the patient's clinical response and plasma drug levels
using the simplest regimen possible
monitoring for drug-drug interactions and iatrogenic illness
periodically reviewing the need for continued drug therapy
encouraging the patient to dispose of old medications
taking steps to promote adherence and to avoid drugs on the Beers list
18. How can we promote medication adherence with elderly patients?: simplifying
drug regimens
providing clear and concise verbal and written instructions
using an appropriate dosage form
clearly labeling and dispensing easy-to-open containers
, NR 565 - advanced pharmacology midterm - Chamberlain
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_d0he6t
developing daily reminders
monitoring frequently
affordability of drugs
support systems
19. Why do nitrates need to be taken no later than 4 PM?: Need nitrate free interval so
tolerance doesn't develop
20. Nine factors that impact outcome of medication?: Gender and race
Genetics and pharmacogenomics
Variability in absorption
placebo effect
Tolerance
patho
age
bodyweight
21. Do you need informed consent for genetic testing?: yes
22. What is the purpose of the Genetic Information Non-Discriminatory Act?: Pro-
tects patients from discrimination by employers and insurance providers based on genetic information
23. Difference between practice authority and prescriptive authority?: Practice au-
thority refers to the nurse practitioner's ability to practice without physician oversight, whereas prescriptive authority
refers to the nurse practitioner's authority to prescribe medications independently and without limitations.
24. Who regulates prescriptive authority?: the jurisdiction of a health professional board. This may
be the State Board of Nursing, the State Board of Medicine, or the State Board of Pharmacy, as determined by each
state.
25. What is scope of practice determined by?: is determined by state practice and licensure laws.
26. What is full practice authority?: Nurse practitioners have the autonomy to evaluate patients,
diagnose, order and interpret tests, initiate and manage treatments and prescribe medications, including controlled
substances without physician oversight.
27. What is reduced practice authority?: Nurse practitioners are limited in at least one element of
practice. The state requires a formal collaborative agreement with an outside health discipline for the nurse practitioner
to provide patient care. ex/ physician involvement for 5 yrs than independent
