NR 565 Final Exam
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_hv8dig
1. Acute symptoms of diabetes plus casual plasma glucose concentration
greater than or equal to 200 mg/dL.
*Casual is defined as any time of day without regard to time since last meal. The
classic symptoms of diabetes are polyuria, polydipsia, and unexplained weight
loss.
a. Pre-diabetes
b. Diabetes mellitus: b
2. Fasting plasma glucose greater than or equal to 126 mg/dL.
*Fasting is defined as no caloric intake for at least 8 hours.
a. Diabetes mellitus
b. Pre-diabetes: a
3. 2 hour post-load plasma glucose in an oral glucose tolerance test greater than
or equal to 200 mg/dL. The test uses a glucose load containing the equivalent
of 75 g anhydrous glucose dissolved in water.
a. Pre-diabetes
b. Diabetes mellitus: b
4. HgbA1c greater than or equal to 6.5%
a. Diabetes mellitus
b. Pre-diabetes: a
5. Fasting plasma glucose 100 to 125 mg/dL (IFG) or
a. Diabetes mellitus
b. Pre-diabetes: b
6. Plasma glucose 140 to 199 mg/dL (IGT) 2 hours post-ingestion of standard
glucose load (75 g) or
a. Diabetes mellitus
b. Pre-diabetes: b
7. HgbA1c 5.7% to 6.4%
a. Diabetes mellitus
b. Pre-diabetes: b
8. SGLT2i (sodium-glucose cotransporter-2 inhibitors): -ozin
9. Biguanides: Metformin (Glucophage)
10. DPP-4i (Dipeptidyl Peptidase-4 Inhibitors): - iptin
, NR 565 Final Exam
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_hv8dig
11. Sulfonylureas: - Gly or Gli
12. GLP-1 (Glucagon-like peptide 1 receptor agonists): - glutides
13. TZD (Thiazolidinediones): - azone
14. Rapid onset insulin: aspart (Novolog), glulisine (apidra) and lispro (humalog)
15. Rapid acting onset: 5-30 minutes
16. rapid acting peak: 0.5 - 3 hours
17. rapid acting duration: 3-4 hours
18. short acting insulin: Regular (Humulin R, Novolin R)
19. short acting onset: 30-60 min
20. short acting peak: 2-4 h
21. short acting duration: 3-7 h
22. intermediate acting insulin: Isophane (NPH)
23. intermediate acting onset: 1-2 hours
24. intermediate acting peak: 4-10 hours
25. intermediate acting duration: 10-16 h
26. long acting insulin: glargine (Lantus)
detemir (Levemir)
27. long acting onset: 1-2 hours
28. long acting peak: none
29. long acting duration: 20-24 h
30. fixed combination insulin: NPH mixed with regular or lisper or aspirate
31. fixed combination onset: 5-60 minutes
32. fixed combination peak: dual
33. fixed combination duration: 16 h
34. TSH is low, free T4 is high and T3 is normal: Etiology can be related to exogenous T4 ingestion,
a concurrent non-thyroidal illness, or amiodarone-induced thyroid dysfunction.
35. Serum TSH is normal or elevated, and free T4 and T3 are elevated: Possibility of
a TSH producing pituitary tumor, which would need to be evaluated further with magnetic resonance imaging.
36. TSH is low, the free T4 is normal and the serum T3 is high: Primary hyperthyroidism.
However, other reasons for this thyroid function test abnormality could be exogenous T3 ingestion, or a functioning
adenoma.
, NR 565 Final Exam
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_hv8dig
37. Which of the following agents is the first-line treatment for hyperthyroidism
or Grave's disease?
a. Metoprolol
b. Methimazole
c. Allopurinol
d. Levothyroxine: b
38. Which of the following agents is the preferred treatment option for thyroid
storm?
a. Iodine-131
b. Methylphenidate
c. Levothyroxine
d. PTU: d
39. Which laboratory tests should be completed before prescribing methima-
zole? Select all that apply.
a. thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
b. CMP
c. free thyroxine (T4)
d. free triiodothyronine (T3)
e. CBC
f. LFTs: a, c, d, e, f
40. Sabrina is seen one year later and reports that she has developed atrial
fibrillation and was put on warfarin by a new cardiologist. What monitoring
concerns are associated with taking warfarin?
a. Vitamin K
b. INR
c. Creatinine
d. Lipid Panel: b
41. Which of the following agents is the first-line treatment for hyothyroidism?
a. Methimazole
b. Allopurinol
c. Metoprolol
d. Levothyroxine: d
, NR 565 Final Exam
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_hv8dig
42. Hypothyroid treatment in infants: Hormone replacement therapy should last 3 years and then
stop for 4 weeks to allow for follow-up testing.
43. Hypothyroid treatment in pregnancy: Should be screened and treated as soon as possible and
may require increased dosages for a period of 4-12 weeks.
44. hypothyroid treatment in adults: Lifelong hormone replacement is needed.
45. Cecilia is started on levothyroxine 100 micrograms daily. When should her
TSH be re-checked?
a. 6 weeks
b. 8 weeks
c. 4 weeks
d. 2 weeks: a
46. Once her labs reveal that her thyroid is euthyroid and her dose can be
maintained at the current level, at what interval should her TSH be re-checked?
a. every 12 months
b. every 18 months
c. every 6 months
d. every 24 months: a
47. What medications reduce the absorption of levothyroxine: Histamine 2 (H2) receptor
blockers (e.g., cimetidine [Tagamet])
Proton pump inhibitors (e.g., lansoprazole [Prevacid])
Sucralfate (Carafate)
Colestipol (Colestid)
Aluminum-containing antacids (e.g., Maalox, Mylanta),
Calcium supplements (e.g., Tums, Os-Cal)
Iron supplements (e.g., ferrous sulfate)
Magnesium salts
Orlistat (Xenical)
48. What medications accelerate the absorption of levothyroxine: Phenytoin (Dilantin)
Carbamazepine (Tegretol, Carbatrol)
Rifampin (Rifadin)
Sertraline (Zoloft)
Phenobarbital
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_hv8dig
1. Acute symptoms of diabetes plus casual plasma glucose concentration
greater than or equal to 200 mg/dL.
*Casual is defined as any time of day without regard to time since last meal. The
classic symptoms of diabetes are polyuria, polydipsia, and unexplained weight
loss.
a. Pre-diabetes
b. Diabetes mellitus: b
2. Fasting plasma glucose greater than or equal to 126 mg/dL.
*Fasting is defined as no caloric intake for at least 8 hours.
a. Diabetes mellitus
b. Pre-diabetes: a
3. 2 hour post-load plasma glucose in an oral glucose tolerance test greater than
or equal to 200 mg/dL. The test uses a glucose load containing the equivalent
of 75 g anhydrous glucose dissolved in water.
a. Pre-diabetes
b. Diabetes mellitus: b
4. HgbA1c greater than or equal to 6.5%
a. Diabetes mellitus
b. Pre-diabetes: a
5. Fasting plasma glucose 100 to 125 mg/dL (IFG) or
a. Diabetes mellitus
b. Pre-diabetes: b
6. Plasma glucose 140 to 199 mg/dL (IGT) 2 hours post-ingestion of standard
glucose load (75 g) or
a. Diabetes mellitus
b. Pre-diabetes: b
7. HgbA1c 5.7% to 6.4%
a. Diabetes mellitus
b. Pre-diabetes: b
8. SGLT2i (sodium-glucose cotransporter-2 inhibitors): -ozin
9. Biguanides: Metformin (Glucophage)
10. DPP-4i (Dipeptidyl Peptidase-4 Inhibitors): - iptin
, NR 565 Final Exam
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_hv8dig
11. Sulfonylureas: - Gly or Gli
12. GLP-1 (Glucagon-like peptide 1 receptor agonists): - glutides
13. TZD (Thiazolidinediones): - azone
14. Rapid onset insulin: aspart (Novolog), glulisine (apidra) and lispro (humalog)
15. Rapid acting onset: 5-30 minutes
16. rapid acting peak: 0.5 - 3 hours
17. rapid acting duration: 3-4 hours
18. short acting insulin: Regular (Humulin R, Novolin R)
19. short acting onset: 30-60 min
20. short acting peak: 2-4 h
21. short acting duration: 3-7 h
22. intermediate acting insulin: Isophane (NPH)
23. intermediate acting onset: 1-2 hours
24. intermediate acting peak: 4-10 hours
25. intermediate acting duration: 10-16 h
26. long acting insulin: glargine (Lantus)
detemir (Levemir)
27. long acting onset: 1-2 hours
28. long acting peak: none
29. long acting duration: 20-24 h
30. fixed combination insulin: NPH mixed with regular or lisper or aspirate
31. fixed combination onset: 5-60 minutes
32. fixed combination peak: dual
33. fixed combination duration: 16 h
34. TSH is low, free T4 is high and T3 is normal: Etiology can be related to exogenous T4 ingestion,
a concurrent non-thyroidal illness, or amiodarone-induced thyroid dysfunction.
35. Serum TSH is normal or elevated, and free T4 and T3 are elevated: Possibility of
a TSH producing pituitary tumor, which would need to be evaluated further with magnetic resonance imaging.
36. TSH is low, the free T4 is normal and the serum T3 is high: Primary hyperthyroidism.
However, other reasons for this thyroid function test abnormality could be exogenous T3 ingestion, or a functioning
adenoma.
, NR 565 Final Exam
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_hv8dig
37. Which of the following agents is the first-line treatment for hyperthyroidism
or Grave's disease?
a. Metoprolol
b. Methimazole
c. Allopurinol
d. Levothyroxine: b
38. Which of the following agents is the preferred treatment option for thyroid
storm?
a. Iodine-131
b. Methylphenidate
c. Levothyroxine
d. PTU: d
39. Which laboratory tests should be completed before prescribing methima-
zole? Select all that apply.
a. thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
b. CMP
c. free thyroxine (T4)
d. free triiodothyronine (T3)
e. CBC
f. LFTs: a, c, d, e, f
40. Sabrina is seen one year later and reports that she has developed atrial
fibrillation and was put on warfarin by a new cardiologist. What monitoring
concerns are associated with taking warfarin?
a. Vitamin K
b. INR
c. Creatinine
d. Lipid Panel: b
41. Which of the following agents is the first-line treatment for hyothyroidism?
a. Methimazole
b. Allopurinol
c. Metoprolol
d. Levothyroxine: d
, NR 565 Final Exam
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_hv8dig
42. Hypothyroid treatment in infants: Hormone replacement therapy should last 3 years and then
stop for 4 weeks to allow for follow-up testing.
43. Hypothyroid treatment in pregnancy: Should be screened and treated as soon as possible and
may require increased dosages for a period of 4-12 weeks.
44. hypothyroid treatment in adults: Lifelong hormone replacement is needed.
45. Cecilia is started on levothyroxine 100 micrograms daily. When should her
TSH be re-checked?
a. 6 weeks
b. 8 weeks
c. 4 weeks
d. 2 weeks: a
46. Once her labs reveal that her thyroid is euthyroid and her dose can be
maintained at the current level, at what interval should her TSH be re-checked?
a. every 12 months
b. every 18 months
c. every 6 months
d. every 24 months: a
47. What medications reduce the absorption of levothyroxine: Histamine 2 (H2) receptor
blockers (e.g., cimetidine [Tagamet])
Proton pump inhibitors (e.g., lansoprazole [Prevacid])
Sucralfate (Carafate)
Colestipol (Colestid)
Aluminum-containing antacids (e.g., Maalox, Mylanta),
Calcium supplements (e.g., Tums, Os-Cal)
Iron supplements (e.g., ferrous sulfate)
Magnesium salts
Orlistat (Xenical)
48. What medications accelerate the absorption of levothyroxine: Phenytoin (Dilantin)
Carbamazepine (Tegretol, Carbatrol)
Rifampin (Rifadin)
Sertraline (Zoloft)
Phenobarbital
